CUET UG 2025 General Test Previous Year Solved Paper

CUET UG 2025 General Test previous year paper with easy solutions. This page keeps the original questions and presents student-friendly explanations in a clean table format for quick revision, practice, and topic-wise mock preparation.

Subject: General Test
Year: 2025
Questions extracted: 50
Source format: previous year paper PDF with solution section

Student-Friendly Solutions Table

Each question is shown with its original wording from the source paper and an easier explanation designed for quick understanding.

Q.No. Question Easy Solution
1Q1. If 36: 84 :: 42: X, then the value of X, is:
1. 18
2. 98
3. 72
4. 48
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Recall the meaning of proportion
The notation A : B :: C : D means

or equivalently

Step 2. Substitute given numbers

Step 3. Solve for X

Now calculate carefully:
• 84 ÷ 12 = 7
• 36 ÷ 12 = 3
So:

Final Answer: X = 98
Correct Option: 2)

2Q2. Ram purchased a watch at a cost of (
𝟗
𝟏𝟎)
𝒕𝒉
of the original cost and sold at
8% more than the original cost. His profit/loss is
1. 20% profit
2. 20% loss
3. 18% profit
4. 18% loss
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Assume the original cost = ₹100
Then:

• Cost Price (CP) = (9/10) × 100 = ₹90
• Selling Price (SP) = 8% more than the original cost
→ SP = 100 + 8 = ₹108
Step 2. Find profit or loss
Profit = SP – CP
Profit = 108 − 90 = ₹18
Since profit is positive, it’s a profit.
Step 3. Find profit percentage
Profit % = (Profit / CP) × 100
Profit % = (18 / 90) × 100 = 20%
Final Answer: 20% Profit
Correct Option: 1)

3Q3. Arrange the simple interest of the following cases in decreasing order -
(A) The simple interest on Rs 6600 at 5% per annum for 2 yrs.
(B) The simple interest on Rs 200 at 6% per annum for 5 yrs.
(C) The simple interest on Rs 840 at 5% per annum for 4 yrs.
(D) The simple interest on Rs 5000 at 12% per annum for 2 yrs.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (B), (A), (D), (C)
3. (B), (A), (C), (D)
4. (D), (A), (C), (B)
(After the list of questions, the solution will Start.)
Correct Option: 4

Step 1: Formula

Step 2: Calculate S.I. for each case

Step 3: Arrange in decreasing order

Case
Simple Interest (₹)
(D)
1200
(A)
660
(C)
168
(B)
60

→ Decreasing order: (D), (A), (C), (B)
Final Answer: (D), (A), (C), (B)
Correct Option: 4)

4Q4. Four circles of equal radius are drawn with centers, A, B, C and D such
that ABCD is a square of side 14 cm and the circles touch externally as in the
figure. The area of the shaded region bounded by the 4 circles is:
(Take π =
𝟐𝟐
𝟕)

1. 24 cm²
2. 42 cm²
3. 96 cm²
4. 54 cm²
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Understand the geometry
• The centers of the circles (A, B, C, D) form a square of side 14 cm.
• The circles touch externally, so the distance between the centers of
any two adjacent circles = 2r, where r = radius of each circle.
Thus,

Step 2. Visualize the shaded region
• The shaded region lies inside the square but outside the quarter-
circles drawn at each corner.
• So, the area of the shaded region = Area of square – Area of 4 quarter-
circles.
Step 3. Find each area
(a) Area of square
Area of square = (side)2 = 142 = 196cm2
(b) Area of 4 quarter-circles
Each quarter circle has radius = 7 cm.

Four quarter-circles together make one full circle (because 4 × ¼ = 1).

Step 4. Shaded region
Shaded area = Area of square − Area of 4 quarter-circles
= 196 − 154 = 42cm²
Final Answer: 42 cm²
Correct Option: 2)

5Q5. The distance between points A (-5, 7) and B (-1, 3) is:
1. 4 units
2. 6 units
3. 4√2 units
4. 7 units
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Recall the Distance Formula

Here:

Step 2. Substitute the values

Simplify step by step:

Final Answer: 4√2 units
Correct Option: 3)

6Q6. The marks out of 50 obtained by 100 students in a test are given below
as:
Marks obtained
20 25 28 29 33 38 42 43
Number of students
6
20 24 28 15 4
2
1

Find the value of (3 mode - 2 median).
1. 27.5
2. 31
3. 30
4. 28.8
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Verify total frequency
6 + 20 + 24 + 28 + 15 + 4 + 2 + 1 = 100
Total students = 100 (correct)
Step 2. Find the Mode
• Mode = value having maximum frequency.
• Maximum frequency = 28, corresponding to marks = 29.
Mode = 29
Step 3. Find the Median
For N = 100,

Now we find which mark corresponds to this position.
Marks
20 25 28 29 33 38 42 43
Frequency
6
20 24 28 15 4
2
1
Cumulative frequency
6
26 50 78 93 97 99 100

• The 50th value is at marks = 28,
• The 51st value is at marks = 29.
So,

Step 4. Calculate (3 Mode – 2 Median)

Final Answer: 30

Correct Option: 3)

7Q7. Suppose we throw a dice once. Then, which one of the following is/are
correct?
(A) The probability of getting a number greater than 4 is
𝟏
𝟑.
(B) The probability of getting a number greater than or equal to 4 is
𝟏
𝟑.
(C) The probability of getting a number less than or equal to 3 is
𝟏
𝟐.
(D) The probability of getting a number less than or equal to 6 is 1.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (B), (C) and (D) only
3. (A), (C) and (D) only
4. (A) and (D) only
Correct Option: 3

Given: A fair die (faces 1 to 6) is thrown once.
Total outcomes = 6.

(A) Number greater than 4

(B) Number greater than or equal to 4

(C) Number less than or equal to 3

(D) Number less than or equal to 6

Final Answer: True statements: (A), (C), (D)
Correct Option: 3)

8Q8. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(A) 8P3 − 10C3
(I) 6
(B) 8P5
(II) 21
(C) nP4 = 360, then find n
(III) 216
(D) nC2 = 210, find n
(IV) 6720

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
2. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (1)
3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (1), (D) - (II)
4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (1), (C) (II), (D) - (III)
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Write the given data

Step 2. Solve each one
(A) ⁸P₃ − ¹⁰C₃
⁸P₃ = 8 × 7 × 6 = 336

¹⁰C₃ =
10 × 9 × 8
3 × 2 × 1 = 120

⁸P₃ − ¹⁰C₃ = 336 − 120 = 216
So, (A) → (III) 216
(B) ⁸P₅

⁸P₅ = 8 × 7 × 6 × 5 × 4 = 6720

So, (B) → (IV) 6720
(C) Õ¸P4 = 360
Formula:
nP₄ = n × (n−1) × (n−2) × (n−3)
Try Õ¸ = 6:
6 × 5 × 4 × 3 = 360
Hence, Õ¸ = 6
So, (C) → (I) 6

(D) nCâ‚‚ = 210
Formula:

Hence, Õ¸ = 21
So, (D) → (II) 21
Step 3. Final Matching Table

Final Answer: (A)-(III), (B)-(IV), (C)-(I), (D)-(II)
Correct Option: 3)

9Q9. The present age of a father is 4 years more than double the age of his son.
After 10 years, the father's age is 30 years more than his son. Then the
present age of father is:

1. 26 years
2. 28 years
3. 56 years
4. 60 years
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Let the son’s present age = x years
Then, father’s present age = 2x + 4 years
(because father is 4 years more than double the son’s age)
Step 2. After 10 years:

Given:
Father’s age will be 30 years more than the son’s age.

Step 3. Simplify the equation

Step 4. Find father’s present age

Father’s present age = 56 years
Final Answer: 56 years
Correct Option: 3)

10Q10. The angles of elevation of the top of a tower from two points at a
distance of 5 meters and 20 meters along the same straight line from the
base of the tower, are complementary. Find the height of the tower.
1. 10 m
2. 15 m
3. 10√3 m
4. 20 m
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Let the height of the tower = h meters
Let the angle of elevation from the point 5 m be θ
Then, from the point 20 m, the angle of elevation will be (90° − θ)
(since they are complementary)
Step 2. Write the tan formulas
For the first point (distance = 5 m):

For the second point (distance = 20 m):

Step 3. Use the identity:

So, from equation (2):

So,

Step 4. Substitute

Simplify:

Step 5. Cross multiply:

Height of the tower = 10 meters
Final Answer: 10 m
Correct Option: 1)

11Q11. The base diameter of a cylinder is 21 cm and the height is 28 cm, then:
(A) Radius of cylinder = 10.5 cm
(B) Volume = 12936 cm³
(C) Curved surface Area = 1848 cm2
(D) Total surface area = 2541 cm²
Which of the following is/ are correct?
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (C) and (D) only
3. (B), (C) and (D) only
4. (A), (B) and (C) only
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Radius from diameter

Step 2. Volume

Step 3. Curved Surface Area (CSA)

Step 4. Total Surface Area (TSA)

Final Answer: Correct statements are (A), (C) and (D).
Correct Option: 2)

12Q12. P and Q can complete a job in 24 days working together. P can alone
complete it in 32 days. Both of them worked together for 8 days and then P
left. The number of days Q will take to complete the remaining job is:
1. 26 days
2. 30 days
3. 64 days

4. 60 days
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Let total work = 1 unit (the whole job)
P and Q together finish the job in 24 days →
1 day’s work of (P + Q) = 1/24
P alone can do the job in 32 days →

1 day’s work of P = 1/32
Step 2. Find Q’s 1 day work

Take LCM = 96

So, Q alone can do the work in 96 days
Step 3. Work done together in 8 days

Step 4. Time taken by Q alone to finish remaining work

Q will take 64 days to finish the remaining work.
Final Answer: 64 days
Correct Option: 3)

13Q13. A person rows a boat 10 kms along the stream in 30 minutes and
returns to the starting point in 40 minutes. The speed of the stream is:
1. 17.5 km/h
2. 2.5 km/h
3. 5 km/h
4. 15 km/h
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Given data

Let:

Step 2. Use the formulas

Step 3. Solve for b and s
Add the two equations:

Substitute into first:

Final Answer: Speed of stream = 2.5 km/h
Correct Option: 2)

14Q14. The unit place digit of the number (37)2 is:
1. 2
2. 3
3. 7
4. 9
Correct Option: 4

Step 1. To find the unit place digit, we only need to look at the unit digit of
the number being squared.
For 372, the unit digit of 37 is 7.

Step 2. Now find the unit digit of 72
72 = 49
→ The unit digit is 9.
Final Answer: 9
Correct Option: 4)

15Q15. In a flower bed there are 23 rose plants in the first row, 21 in the
second, 19 in the third and so on. There are 5 rose plants in the last row.
Then the number of rows in the flower bed is:
1. 5
2. 10
3. 15
4. 20
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. The number of rose plants in each row forms an arithmetic sequence:
23, 21, 19, …, 5
Step 2. Let the number of rows be Õ¸.

Step 3. Use the nth term formula:

Substitute the given values:

Step 4. Simplify:

Final Answer: 10 rows
Correct Option: 2)

16Q16. Find the term which doesn't fit into the series given below:
H4Q, K10N, N20K, Q43H, T90E
1. H4Q
2. K10N
3. Q43H
4. T90E
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Observe the letter pattern
First letters: H → K → N → Q → T

Each time, letters increase by +3 in the alphabet:
H(8) +3 = K(11), +3 = N(14), +3 = Q(17), +3 = T(20)
Last letters: Q → N → K → H → E
Each time, letters decrease by −3 in the alphabet:
Q(17) −3 = N(14), −3 = K(11), −3 = H(8), −3 = E(5)
So, all terms follow the correct letter pattern.
Step 2. Observe the numbers
Numbers are: 4, 10, 20, 43, 90
Let’s see their growth:
• 4 → 10 (×2.5)
• 10 → 20 (×2)
• 20 → 43 (×2.15)
• 43 → 90 (×2.1)
The first three follow a near-doubling pattern, but the jump from 20 → 43
looks slightly inconsistent (expected ≈ 40).
Thus, Q43H breaks the smooth numeric trend.
Final Answer: Q43H
Correct Option: 3)

17Q17. Given figure is embedded in any one of the four option figures. Find the
option figure which contains the given figure as its part.
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Observe the given figure:
• The figure is a four-sided shape (quadrilateral).
• Its sides are as follows:
o Bottom: short and almost horizontal
o Right side: nearly vertical
o Top: short slanting line towards left
o Left side: long slant joining back to the base

This makes a unique slanted quadrilateral shape.
Step 2. Compare with the option figures:
1. Option (1): Has extra small shapes and corners — not matching the
simple four-sided outline ❌
2. Option (2): All lines meet at one central point — no distinct closed
shape like the given one ❌
3. Option (3): Clearly contains the same four sides — a short horizontal
base, vertical right, small top slant, and long left slant. Matches
perfectly
4. Option (4): Bottom part forms a V shape; no long single slant as in
given figure ❌
Step 3. Conclusion
The given shape is clearly visible as part of Option (3).
Final Answer: The given figure is embedded in Option (3)

Correct Option: 3)

18Q18. A clock is set right at 5 a.m. The clock loses 16 minutes in 24 hours.
What will be the correct approximate time when the clock indicates 10 p.m.
on 4th day?
1. 11 p.m
2. 9 p.m
3. 11 a.m
4. 11.30 p.m
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Understand the problem
• Clock was correct at 5 a.m. on Day 1.
• It loses 16 minutes per day (24 hours).
• So, after some real time, the clock will show less time than actual.
Step 2. Calculate total time passed according to the clock
From 5 a.m. (Day 1) to 10 p.m. (Day 4) =

• 3 full days = 3 × 24 = 72 hours
• Plus from 5 a.m. to 10 p.m. on 4th day = 17 hours
Total time shown by clock = 72 + 17 = 89 hours
Step 3. Find how much real time has passed
In 24 hours real time, the clock shows 24 hours − 16 minutes
i.e., clock runs for only

Now, if the clock shows 89 hours,
actual time passed =

Actual time passed = 90 hours
Step 4. Find the correct actual time
If actual time passed = 90 hours,
add 90 hours to 5 a.m. (Day 1):
90 hours = 3 days + 18 hours
→ After 3 days → 5 a.m. (Day 4)
→ +18 hours → 11 p.m. (Day 4)
Correct actual time = 11 p.m.
Final Answer: 11 p.m
Correct Option: 1)

19Q19. If 1st July 2022 was Sunday, then what was the day on 1st November
2022?
1. Monday
2. Tuesday
3. Thursday
4. Friday
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Count the days from 1 July to 1 November 2022
• July → 31 days
• August → 31 days

• September → 30 days
• October → 31 days
Total = 31 + 31 + 30 + 31 = 123 days
Step 2. Convert total days into weeks + extra days
123 ÷ 7 = 17 weeks and 4 extra days
(Only the remainder matters for the weekday.)
So, the day will be 4 days ahead of Sunday.
Step 3. Move 4 days forward from Sunday
Sunday → Monday (1) → Tuesday (2) → Wednesday (3) → Thursday (4)
Therefore, 1 November 2022 was Thursday.
Final Answer: Thursday
Correct Option: 3)

20Q20. Complete the following figure matrix.
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Observe the given figure:
It is a four-sided shape (quadrilateral) having —
• one short horizontal base,
• one vertical right side,
• one small slant on top, and
• one long slanting left side.
Step 2. Compare with each option:
• Option 1: Has extra corners, doesn’t match ❌
• Option 2: All lines meet at one point, doesn’t match ❌
• Option 3: Contains the same four sides — short base, vertical right,
slanted top, and long left side
• Option 4: Bottom is V-shaped, doesn’t match ❌
Final Answer: The given figure is in Option 3

Correct Option: 3)

21Q21. If A + B means A is the brother of B; A* B means A is the sister of B; A #
B means A is the daughter of B and A-B means A is the wife of B, then in the
expression U # C- D + H+ T, how is H related to U?
1. Father
2. Uncle
3. Aunt
4. Brother
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Decode each symbol
• A + B → A is brother of B
• A * B → A is sister of B
• A # B → A is daughter of B
• A − B → A is wife of B
Step 2. Read the chain: U # C − D + H + T
1. U # C → U is the daughter of C.
2. C − D → C is the wife of D ⇒ D is U’s father.
3. D + H → D is brother of H ⇒ H is sibling of D.
4. H + T → H is brother of T ⇒ H is male.
Step 3. Conclude H’s relation to U
• D is U’s father.
• H is brother of D (male).
⇒ H is U’s paternal uncle.
Final Answer: Uncle
Correct Option: 2)

22Q22. Choose the correct mirror image of fig(x), when mirror is placed at the
right side.
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Understand the mirror position
The mirror is placed on the right side, so the figure will be flipped left to
right (like seeing your reflection in a mirror).

👉 The right side becomes left, and the left side becomes right.
👉 The top and bottom parts remain the same.
Step 2. Observe Fig(x)
Inside the triangle:
• A black circle is on the top-left corner.
• A black small triangle is on the bottom-right corner.
• An upward arrow is in the center.
Step 3. Draw the mirror image in mind
After the mirror flip:
• The black circle that was on the left will now appear on the right.
• The black small triangle that was on the right will now appear on the
left.
• The arrow in the center remains the same because it’s vertically
symmetrical.
Step 4. Match with the given options
• Option 1: Circle on left ❌
• Option 2: Circle on left ❌
• Option 3: Circle on right, triangle on left, arrow same
• Option 4: Circle on right but arrow incorrect ❌
Final Answer: Mirror image is shown in Option 3

Correct Option: 3)

23Q23. In a certain code, ALPHABET is written as TEBAHPLA. How is
DECIPHER written in that code?
1. REPHCIED
2. REPHICED
3. REIPHCED
4. REHPICED
Correct Option: 4

Step 1. Identify the coding rule
ALPHABET → TEBAHPLA
This is simply the reverse of the word (last letter becomes first, etc.).
Step 2. Apply the same rule to DECIPHER
Write DECIPHER in reverse order:
D E C I P H E R → R E H P I C E D
Final Answer: REHPICED
Correct Option: 4)

24Q24. In the following options, four words have been given, out of which three
are alike in some manner, while the fourth one is different. Choose out the
odd one.
1. Milk
2. Water
3. Oil
4. Sugar
Correct Option: 4

Step 1. Observe the items by physical state at room temperature
• Milk – liquid
• Water – liquid
• Oil – liquid
• Sugar – solid (crystals)
Step 2. Identify the odd one
Three are liquids, while Sugar is a solid → hence different.
Final Answer: Sugar
Correct Option: 4)

25Q25. A girl walks 20 meters towards North. Then, turning to her left, she
walks 50 meters. Then, turning to her right, she walks 40 metres. Again, she
turns to her right and walks 50 metres. How far is she from her initial
position?
1. 60 metres
2. 50 metres
3. 20 metres
4. 40 metres
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Trace the path step-by-step
1. The girl walks 20 m North.
→ From starting point O(0, 0) to A(0, 20).
2. Turns left (from North → West) and walks 50 m.
→ From A(0, 20) to B(−50, 20).

3. Turns right (from West → North) and walks 40 m.
→ From B(−50, 20) to C(−50, 60).
4. Turns right again (from North → East) and walks 50 m.
→ From C(−50, 60) to D(0, 60).
Step 2. Find distance from starting point to final point
Starting point = O(0, 0)
Final point = D(0, 60)

Step 3. Interpretation
She ends directly north of her starting point, 60 m away.
Final Answer: 60 metres
Correct Option: 1)

26Q26. Thirty children are standing in a row facing North. If in this row Neelam
is seventeenth from the left then what is the position of Neelam from the
right?
1. 17
2. 13
3. 14
4. 15
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Given information
• Total children = 30
• Neelam’s position from left = 17th
We need to find her position from the right end.
Step 2. Apply the formula
Position from right = Total − Position from left + 1
Substitute:
= 30 − 17 + 1
= 14
Final Answer: 14
Correct Option: 3)

27Q27. What will come in place of the question mark in the following numerical
series?
6, 9, 14, 21, 30, ?
1. 36
2. 41
3. 62
4. 59
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Write the given series
6, 9, 14, 21, 30, ?
Step 2. Find the differences between consecutive terms
9 − 6 = 3
14 − 9 = 5
21 − 14 = 7
30 − 21 = 9
So, the differences are 3, 5, 7, 9 — consecutive odd numbers.
Step 3. Continue the pattern
Next difference = next odd number = 11
Add this to the last term:
30 + 11 = 41
Final Answer: 41
Correct Option: 2)

28Q28. Find the missing number from the given alternatives.
6
10
14
9
15
21
12
20
?

1. 28
2. 36

3. 42
4. 43
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Write the numbers clearly in a 3 × 3 grid
6
10
14
9
15
21
12
20
?

Step 2. Observe the pattern across columns
Column 1: 6 → 9 → 12 → (each +3)
Column 2: 10 → 15 → 20 → (each +5)
Column 3: 14 → 21 → ?
Here, 14 → 21 = +7,
so, continue by adding +7 again:

21 + 7 = 28
Step 3. Verify the consistency
Each column increases by a constant difference:
(+3), (+5), (+7) — consistent arithmetic pattern.
Final Answer: 28
Correct Option: 1)

29Q29. Seven people T, U, V, W, X, Y & Z are standing in a single line facing a milk
- booth. X is somewhere ahead of Y. There is exactly one person standing
between V and Z. W is immediately behind T. Y is behind both U & W. If W & V
are fourth and fifth in line respectively, then whish of the following must be
true?
1. T is first
2. Z is first
3. Y is sixth
4. Y is seventh
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Fix the given positions
• W & V are 4th and 5th respectively ⇒ W = 4, V = 5.
• W is immediately behind T ⇒ T must be just before W ⇒ T = 3.
Step 2. Use “one person between V and Z”
• With V at 5, Z must be 3 or 7 (positions 5 ± 2).
• Position 3 is already taken by T ⇒ Z = 7.
Step 3. Place Y using “Y is behind U and W”
• Y must be after both U and W. Since W is at 4, Y must be > 4.
• The only positions after 4 that are free: 6 (because 5 is V and 7 is Z).
⇒ Y = 6.
Step 4. Check X’s condition
• X is ahead of Y ⇒ X is before 6, which is possible. (U takes the
remaining open spot before 6.)
Thus, the statement that must be true is Y is sixth.
Final Answer: Y is sixth
Correct Option: 3)

30Q30. Select the figures which, when fitted with each other, will form a
complete square.
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Observe each figure carefully

• Figure (A): Upper-left shape with a slanting edge.
• Figure (B): A large shape with an inward V at the bottom (looks like
the main square body).
• Figure (C): Small upper-right piece with a matching slant edge.
• Figure (D): Lower-right piece with a matching slant edge at the
bottom.
Step 2. Mentally fit the pieces
• (B) forms the main base of the square (the biggest piece).
• (A) fits perfectly on the top-left side of (B).
• (C) fits to the top-right side of (B).
• (D) fits to the bottom-right portion, completing the missing section of
the square.
Step 3. Verify combinations
By visual matching:
• (A), (B), and (C) together form most of the square but leave a small
open section.
• Adding (D) completes the square fully.
Therefore, the combination of (A), (B), (C), and (D) forms a complete
square.
Final Answer: (A), (B), (C), and (D)
Correct Option: 3)

31Q31. The first Indigenous vaccine of COVID-19 developed in India was....
1. COVAXIN
2. COVISHIELD
3. SPUTNIK-V
4. MODERNA
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Read the question carefully
The question asks for the first Indigenous (made in India) COVID-19
vaccine.
Step 2. Check each option

1. COVAXIN – Developed indigenously in India by Bharat Biotech in
collaboration with the Indian Council of Medical Research (ICMR) and
the National Institute of Virology (NIV).
2. COVISHIELD – Developed by Oxford University and AstraZeneca
(manufactured in India by Serum Institute) ❌
3. SPUTNIK-V – Developed in Russia ❌
4. MODERNA – Developed in the USA ❌
Final Answer: COVAXIN
Correct Option: 1)

32Q32. Kinematics deal with the
1. Motion of an object
2. Material property of an object
3. Elastic property of an object
4. Optical property of an object
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Understand what kinematics is
Kinematics is a branch of physics that describes the motion of objects —
how far, how fast, and in which direction they move — without considering
the cause of the motion (like force or mass).
Step 2. Match with given options
1. Motion of an object (Correct — that’s exactly what kinematics
studies)
2. Material property ❌
3. Elastic property ❌
4. Optical property ❌
Final Answer: Motion of an object
Correct Option: 1)

33Q33. The gas which is used to make chloroform is
1. Cyanogen
2. Radon
3. Propane
4. Methane
Correct Option: 4

Step 1. Understand what chloroform is
• Chloroform (CHCl₃) is a chemical compound made by chlorinating
methane (CHâ‚„).

• The process involves substitution of hydrogen atoms in methane by
chlorine atoms.
Step 2. Identify the gas used
• The base gas for making chloroform is methane.
• Reaction (simplified):

Final Answer: Methane
Correct Option: 4)

34Q34. The first Tirthankara in Jainism is believed to be......
1. Arishtanemi
2. Sambhunath
3. Rishabhnath
4. Mahavira
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Understand the concept
In Jainism, there are 24 Tirthankaras (spiritual teachers or prophets) who
show the path of salvation.
Step 2. Identify the first Tirthankara
• The first Tirthankara is Rishabhnath (Adinath).
• The 24th Tirthankara is Mahavira.
Hence, Rishabhnath is believed to be the first one.
Final Answer: Rishabhnath
Correct Option: 3)

35Q35. The Ilbari dynasty is famously known as
1. The Slave Dynasty
2. The Khilji Dynasty
3. The Tughlaq Dynasty
4. The Lodhi Dynasty

Answer: 1. The Slave Dynasty
The Ilbari rulers were the early Delhi Sultans of Turkic slave origin, so the dynasty is widely known as the Slave Dynasty.

36Q36. The slogan, 'Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it' is associated
with
1. The Khilafat Movement
2. The Poona Pact
3. Civil Disobedience Movement
4. Home Bule Movement
Correct Option: 4

Step 1. Understand the question
We need to identify which movement is associated with the famous slogan -
“Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it.”
Step 2. Recall the historical fact
• This slogan was given by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, one of the leaders of
the Indian freedom struggle.
• He used it to inspire Indians to fight for self-rule (Swaraj).
• This slogan became popular during the Home Rule Movement (1916–
1918).
Step 3. Match with the correct option
• Khilafat Movement → related to Muslim unity after WWI ❌
• Poona Pact → agreement between Gandhi & Ambedkar on separate
electorates ❌
• Civil Disobedience Movement → started by Gandhi in 1930 ❌
• Home Rule Movement → led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak and Annie Besant

Final Answer: Home Rule Movement
Correct Option: 4)

37Q37. Which of the following statements is incorrect for Chandrayaan-3?
1. Launched from Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre on July 14, 2023
2. India became the 4th country to land on the Moon.
3. It consists of a lunar lander named Vikram and a rover named Pragyan.
4. It became the first mission to land near the lunar South Pole.
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Understand the question
We need to identify the incorrect statement about Chandrayaan-3, India’s
third lunar mission.
Step 2. Recall key facts about Chandrayaan-3
• Launch date: July 14, 2023
• Launched from: Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota — not
Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre ❌
• India became the 4th country to achieve a soft landing on the Moon

• It consists of: a lander (Vikram) and a rover (Pragyan)
• It was the first mission to land near the Moon’s South Pole
Step 3. Identify the incorrect statement
The incorrect statement is:
“Launched from Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre on July 14, 2023.”
Because the correct launch site was Satish Dhawan Space Centre,
Sriharikota.
Final Answer: Launched from Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre on July 14,
2023
Correct Option: 1)

38Q38. The IUCN Red List is a catalogue of –
1. Species threatened with risk of extinction
2. Red Sea
3. Hot Springs
4. Rivers
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Understand the question
The question asks what the IUCN Red List is a catalogue of.
Step 2. Recall the key concept
• IUCN stands for International Union for Conservation of Nature.

• The IUCN Red List provides information on the global conservation
status of plant and animal species.
• It classifies species into categories such as Endangered, Vulnerable,
Critically Endangered, and Extinct based on their risk of extinction.
Step 3. Match with options
1. Species threatened with risk of extinction
2. Red Sea ❌
3. Hot Springs ❌
4. Rivers ❌
Final Answer: Species threatened with risk of extinction
Correct Option: 1)

39Q39. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
Author
Novel/Play
(A) William Shakespeare
(I) Man of Destiny
(B) Lewis Carroll
(II) The Tempest
(C) E. M. Forster
(III) Through the Looking Glass

(D) Bernard Shaw
(IV) A Passage to India

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
2. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
3. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Match each author with their correct work
(A) William Shakespeare → (II) The Tempest
→ A famous play written by Shakespeare.
(B) Lewis Carroll → (III) Through the Looking Glass
→ Sequel to Alice’s Adventures in Wonderland.
(C) E. M. Forster → (IV) A Passage to India
→ A novel about British rule in India.
(D) Bernard Shaw → (I) Man of Destiny
→ A short play written by George Bernard Shaw.
Step 2. Write the correct matching
(A) – (II)
(B) – (III)
(C) – (IV)
(D) – (I)

Final Answer: (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
Correct Option: 2)

40Q40. In humans, calcium plays a role in
(A) Bone formation
(B) Blood clotting
(C) Muscle function
(D) Blood formation
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Understand the question
We need to identify which body functions calcium helps in.
Step 2. Recall the biological roles of calcium in humans
(A) Bone formation → Calcium is the main mineral in bones and teeth.
(B) Blood clotting → Calcium helps in the clotting process by activating
clotting factors.
(C) Muscle function → Calcium ions are essential for muscle contraction.
(D) Blood formation → ❌ Blood formation (hematopoiesis) mainly
depends on iron and vitamin B12, not calcium.
Step 3. Select the correct combination
Correct roles: (A), (B), and (C)
Final Answer: (A), (B), and (C) only
Correct Option: 2)

41Q41. Arrange the sequence of national events in the order of their
occurrence.
(A) Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan
(B) Mars Orbiter Mission
(C) Right to Information Act
(D) Economic Liberalization
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (B), (A), (C), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (D), (C), (B), (A)
Correct Option: 4

Step 1. Note the events with their actual years
(D) Economic Liberalization → 1991
(C) Right to Information Act → 2005
(B) Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan) → 2013
(A) Swachh Bharat Abhiyaan → 2014
Step 2. Arrange them in chronological order (earliest to latest)
(D) – 1991
(C) – 2005

(B) – 2013
(A) – 2014
Order → (D), (C), (B), (A)
Final Answer: (D), (C), (B), (A)
Correct Option: 4)

42Q42. Arrange the following international events in chronological sequence of
their occurrence.
(A) Fall of the Berlin Wall
(B) Apartheid ends in South Africa
(C) Adoption of Sustainable Development Goals by UN Member States.
(D) Establishment of the United Nations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (B), (A), (C), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (D), (A), (B), (C)
Correct Option: 4

Step 1. Note the events with their actual years
(D) Establishment of the United Nations → 1945
(A) Fall of the Berlin Wall → 1989
(B) Apartheid ends in South Africa → 1994
(C) Adoption of Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) → 2015
Step 2. Arrange them in chronological order (earliest to latest)
(D) – 1945
(A) – 1989
(B) – 1994
(C) – 2015
Order → (D), (A), (B), (C)
Final Answer: (D), (A), (B), (C)
Correct Option: 4)

43Q43. The strait that separates the North Andaman islands from the group of
islands of Myanmar is
1. Andaman Strait
2. Coco Strait
3. Preparis Strait
4. Cabot Strait
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Understand the question
The question asks which strait separates the North Andaman Islands (India)
from the islands of Myanmar.
Step 2. Recall the geographical fact
• The North Andaman Islands (India) are located close to the Coco
Islands (Myanmar).

• The narrow stretch of sea that separates them is known as the Coco
Strait.
Step 3. Verify other options
• Andaman Strait – Incorrect (no such major strait recognized).
• Preparis Strait – Lies between India and Myanmar, but it separates
Preparis Island and North Andaman, not the Coco group.
• Cabot Strait – Located in Canada, between Newfoundland and Nova
Scotia.
Final Answer: Coco Strait
Correct Option: 2)

44Q44. Article 9 of the Indian Constitution deals with
1. Persons who migrated to India from Pakistan
2. Indians who reside outside India
3. Persons who voluntarily acquire foreign citizenship
4. Right to citizenship at the commencement of the constitution
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Identify the part of the Constitution
Article 9 is part of Part II (Articles 5 to 11) of the Indian Constitution, which
deals with Citizenship.
Step 2. Recall what Article 9 states
Article 9 says:
“No person shall be a citizen of India by virtue of Article 5, 6, or 8 if he has
voluntarily acquired the citizenship of any foreign State.”
This means that if any Indian voluntarily becomes a citizen of another
country, he/she automatically loses Indian citizenship.
Step 3. Understand the concept
• India does not allow dual citizenship.
• So, acquiring foreign citizenship voluntarily leads to the loss of Indian
citizenship.
Final Answer: Persons who voluntarily acquire foreign citizenship
Correct Option: 3)

45Q45. The main purpose of the Goods and Services Tax (GST) compensation
fund is
1. To provide funding for infrastructure development.
2. To provide relief to taxpayers who have paid excess tax.
3. To support the development of micro, small and medium enterprises
(MSMEs)

4. To compensate states for the loss of revenue due to the implementation
of GST.
Correct Option: 4

Step 1. Understand the question
The question asks about the main purpose of the Goods and Services Tax
(GST) compensation fund in India.
Step 2. Recall the concept
• When GST was introduced in 2017, many states were concerned that
they might lose revenue because earlier taxes like VAT, excise, and
service tax were replaced by GST.
• To address this, the GST (Compensation to States) Act, 2017 was
introduced.
• Under this Act, the GST Compensation Fund was created to
compensate states for any loss of revenue arising due to the
implementation of GST for a period of five years (initially).
Final Answer: To compensate states for the loss of revenue due to the
implementation of GST.
Correct Option: 4)

46Q46. Clouds are the masses of small water droplets or tiny ice crystals.
(A) Clouds are classified according to their appearance and height.
(B) Cirrus clouds are high altitude clouds, which are usually feathery shaped
and composed entirely of ice crystals.
(C) Nimbostratus clouds are mid level clouds producing sporadic rain.
(D) Altocumulus are the heap-like clouds having flat bases and rounded tops.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (B), (C) and (D) only
4. (A), (C) and (D) only
Correct Option: 1

Step 1. Analyze each statement carefully
(A) Clouds are classified according to their appearance and height.
Correct — clouds are grouped based on how they look (shape) and the
altitude at which they form.
(B) Cirrus clouds are high-altitude, feathery-shaped, and composed entirely
of ice crystals.
Correct — cirrus clouds are thin, wispy, and form very high in the sky
(above 6,000 m).
(C) Nimbostratus clouds are mid-level clouds producing sporadic rain.
❌ Incorrect — nimbostratus clouds are low to mid-level clouds that bring
continuous rainfall, not sporadic.
(D) Altocumulus are heap-like clouds with flat bases and rounded tops.

Correct — altocumulus clouds are white or gray layers of rounded
masses at mid-altitudes.
Step 2. Select the correct combination
Only (A), (B), and (D) are correct.
Final Answer: (A), (B), and (D) only
Correct Option: 1)

47Q47. Aizawl is the capital of
1. Meghalaya
2. Nagaland
3. Mizoram
4. Tripura
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Understand the question
The question asks: Aizawl is the capital of which Indian state?
Step 2. Recall the fact
• Aizawl is the capital city of Mizoram, a northeastern state of India.
• It is located in the northern part of Mizoram and serves as the
political and cultural center of the state.
Final Answer: Mizoram
Correct Option: 3)

48Q48. Match List-I with List-II
Match the countries with their respective currencies:
List-I
List-II
Country
Currency
(A) Japan
(I) Krone
(B) Russia
(II) Yen
(C) China
(III) Ruble
(D) Norway
(IV) Yuan

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) – (IV), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)
2. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
3. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Match each country with its currency
(A) Japan → Yen (II)
(B) Russia → Ruble (III)
(C) China → Yuan (IV)
(D) Norway → Krone (I)
Step 2. Write the correct matching
(A) – (II)
(B) – (III)
(C) – (IV)

(D) – (I)
Final Answer: (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
Correct Option: 3)

49Q49. The river which flows through the Grand Canyon of India, also known as
the Gandikota Gorge is
1. Ganga
2. Krishna
3. Penna
4. Brahmaputra
Correct Option: 3

Step 1. Understand the question
The question asks which river flows through the Grand Canyon of India, also
called the Gandikota Gorge.
Step 2. Recall the geographical fact
• The Gandikota Gorge is located in Andhra Pradesh.
• It is often called the Grand Canyon of India because of its deep valleys
and steep rocky walls.
• The river that carved this gorge is the Penna (Pennar) River.
Final Answer: Penna River
Correct Option: 3)

50Q50. The National Emblem of India has been adopted from the capital of King
___________________ which was situated in ___________________ .
1. Akbar, Agra
2. Ashoka, Sarnath
3. Ashoka, Sanchi
4. Akbar, Delhi
Correct Option: 2

Step 1. Understand the question
The question asks — The National Emblem of India has been adopted from
the capital of which king and where it was situated.
Step 2. Recall the historical fact
• The National Emblem of India is adopted from the Lion Capital of
Ashoka.
• This Lion Capital was built by Emperor Ashoka during the Mauryan
Empire.
• It is located at Sarnath, near Varanasi (Uttar Pradesh), where Lord
Buddha gave his first sermon.
Final Answer: Ashoka, Sarnath
Correct Option: 2)

FAQs

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