CUET UG 2025 Geography Previous Year Solved Paper

CUET UG 2025 Geography previous year paper with easy solutions. This page keeps the original questions and presents student-friendly explanations in a clean table format for quick revision, practice, and topic-wise mock preparation.

Subject: Geography
Year: 2025
Questions extracted: 50
Source format: previous year paper PDF with solution section

Student-Friendly Solutions Table

Each question is shown with its original wording from the source paper and an easier explanation designed for quick understanding.

Q.No. Question Easy Solution
1Q1. The following activity can be termed as an example of possibilism:
1. Forest worship
2. Ports on the coasts
3. Being afraid of the fury of nature
4. Collecting fruits and herbs from the forest

2. Ports on the coasts
Possibilism is the theory that while the environment sets certain limits,
humans have the ability to modify and adapt it according to their needs.
Building ports on the coasts is an example of possibilism because humans
use the natural coastal environment to facilitate trade and transportation.
The other options—forest worship, being afraid of nature, and collecting
fruits and herbs—represent environmental determinism, where human
activities are controlled by natural forces rather than human innovation.

2Q2. Which of the following statements are correct for ‘technology’?
(A) Understanding of concepts of friction and heat enabled us to conquer
many diseases.
(B) Technology indicates the level of cultural development of society.
(C) Technology loosens the shackles of the environment on human beings.
(D) Human beings interact with their physical environment with the help of
technology.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (C) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Technology reflects the cultural and intellectual advancement of human
society, showing how people have developed tools and systems to improve
life (Statement B).
It also loosens the control of the environment on humans by allowing them
to modify natural conditions for comfort and efficiency (Statement C).
Moreover, humans interact with their environment through technology,
using machines and innovations to meet their needs (Statement D).
Statement (A) is incorrect because understanding friction and heat relates
to scientific knowledge, not directly to technology’s role in society or
environment.

3Q3. Which one of the following is a pull factor of migration?
1. Unemployment
2. Poor living conditions
3. Political turmoil
(After the list of questions, the solution will Start.)

4. Pleasant climate

4. Pleasant climate
A pull factor attracts people to move to a new place. Factors like better job
opportunities, safety, higher living standards, or a pleasant climate
encourage migration. A pleasant climate makes a region more livable and
appealing, drawing people toward it.

The other options—unemployment, poor living conditions, and political
turmoil—are push factors, as they force people to leave their place of origin.

4Q4. Which of the following countries has the highest Human Development
Index (2021)?
1. Germany
2. Switzerland
3. Egypt
4. Nepal

2. Switzerland
Switzerland had the highest Human Development Index (HDI) in 2021,
according to the UNDP Human Development Report. HDI measures a
country’s overall achievement in health (life expectancy), education, and
income.
Switzerland scored the highest due to its excellent healthcare system, high
literacy rate, strong economy, and overall high standard of living.
Countries like Germany also rank high but slightly below Switzerland, while
Egypt and Nepal fall in the medium and low HDI categories, respectively.

5Q5. Arrange the following countries in descending order according to their
population.
(A) India
(B) Indonesia
(C) Nigeria
(D) Mexico
Choose the correct option:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
3. (A), (D), (C), (B)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
The descending order of countries by population is: India → Indonesia →
Nigeria → Mexico.
India has the largest population among these countries. Indonesia ranks
next, being the most populous country in Southeast Asia. Nigeria is the
most populous nation in Africa, followed by Mexico, which has a
comparatively smaller population.
Thus, the correct order by population (from highest to lowest) is India,
Indonesia, Nigeria, and Mexico.

6Q6. ________________ add value to natural resources by transforming raw
materials into valuable products.
1. Secondary activities
2. Tertiary activities
3. Quaternary activities
4. Quinary activities

1. Secondary activities
Secondary activities involve the manufacturing and processing of raw
materials into finished or more valuable products. These activities add
value to natural resources by converting them into usable goods—such as
turning cotton into cloth or iron ore into steel.
In contrast, tertiary activities provide services, quaternary activities deal
with knowledge and research, and quinary activities involve high-level
decision-making.

7Q7. Modern large scale manufacturing doesn't have the following
characteristic:
1. Specialisation of Skills
2. Technological Innovation

3. Mechanisation
4. Low level capital investment

4. Low level capital investment
Modern large-scale manufacturing is characterized by high capital
investment, advanced technology, mechanisation, and specialisation of skills.
These industries require huge financial input for machines, infrastructure,
and research.
Therefore, “low level capital investment” is not a characteristic of modern
large-scale manufacturing, as such industries depend heavily on large
financial resources for production and automation.

8Q8. Which of the following is the main reason for tourist attraction of
Southern Europe and the Mediterranean lands?
1. Climate
2. Culture
3. History and Art
4. Economy

1. Climate
The pleasant Mediterranean climate—characterized by warm, sunny
summers and mild winters—is the main reason for the tourist attraction of
Southern Europe and Mediterranean lands.
This region’s climate is ideal for beach tourism, outdoor recreation, and
relaxation, making it one of the world’s most popular tourist destinations.
While culture and history also attract visitors, the favorable climate is the
primary factor behind year-round tourism in these areas.

9Q9. Among the following identify the primary economic activity?
1. Education
2. Forest Safari
3. Fishing
4. IT industry

3. Fishing
Fishing is a primary economic activity because it involves the direct use of
natural resources from the environment. Primary activities include
agriculture, mining, forestry, and fishing—occupations that depend on
nature for raw materials.
In contrast, education, forest safari, and IT industry belong to the tertiary or
service sector, as they provide services rather than extract natural
resources.

10Q10. Which among these does not fall under Quinary Activities?
1. Specialists
2. Consultants
3. Financial Banking
4. Policy formulators

3. Financial Banking
Financial Banking does not fall under Quinary activities; it belongs to the
Quaternary sector, which involves knowledge-based services like finance,
insurance, and real estate.
Quinary activities include high-level decision-making and leadership roles
such as specialists, consultants, and policy formulators—people who make

important decisions or provide expert guidance. Hence, financial banking is
excluded from this category.

11Q11. Match List-I with List-II
List–I
List–II
(Name of the Pack Animals)
(Areas where they are used as
means of transportation)
(A) Mules
(I) Mountains
(B) Camels
(II) Siberia
(C) Reindeer
(III) Deserts
(D) Horses
(IV) Western Countries

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
3. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
• Mules – Mountains: Mules are used in mountainous regions because
they are strong and sure-footed, ideal for rough terrain.
• Camels – Deserts: Camels are called the “ships of the desert” as they
can survive long periods without water.
• Reindeer – Siberia: Reindeer are used in cold, snowy regions like
Siberia for pulling sledges.
• Horses – Western Countries: Horses are commonly used in Western
countries for transportation, sports, and recreation.

12Q12. What are the different names of Shifting Cultivation?
(A) Jhuming
(B) Chinook
(C) Milpa
(D) Plantation agriculture
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A) and (C) only
3. (C) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

2. (A) and (C) only
Shifting cultivation is a traditional form of agriculture in which land is
cleared by cutting and burning forests, crops are grown for a few years, and
then the land is left fallow.
• It is known as “Jhuming” in Northeast India.
• It is called “Milpa” in Central America and Mexico.
• Chinook refers to a warm, dry wind in North America (not related to
agriculture).
• Plantation agriculture is a modern, large-scale, commercial type of
farming — not shifting cultivation.

13Q13. The Channel Tunnel connects which of the following pair of cities?
1. London-Moscow
2. London-Paris
3. London-Brussels
4. Berlin-London

2. London–Paris
The Channel Tunnel, also known as the Euro Tunnel or Chunnel, is an
underwater rail tunnel that connects the United Kingdom (London) with
France (Paris) through the English Channel.
It allows high-speed trains like the Eurostar to travel between the two cities
in about two and a half hours.

It is one of the world’s longest underwater tunnels and a symbol of
advanced engineering linking Britain and mainland Europe.

14Q14. Which of the following is NOT the basis of international trade?
1. Difference in national resources
2. Stage of economic development
3. Extent of foreign investment
4. Even distribution of resources

4. Even distribution of resources
International trade exists because resources are unevenly distributed across
countries.
Different nations have different climates, minerals, skills, and technologies -
leading to specialization and exchange of goods and services.
If resources were evenly distributed, every country would be self-sufficient,
and there would be no need for international trade.
Hence, even distribution of resources is not a basis of international trade.

15Q15. Big Inch, a famous pipeline which carries petroleum from the oil wells,
is located in which one of the following countries?
1. U.S.A.

2. Canada
3. Brazil
4. India

1. U.S.A.
The Big Inch pipeline is one of the most famous petroleum pipelines in the
United States of America.
It was constructed during World War II to transport crude oil from the oil
fields of Texas to the refineries and ports on the East Coast.
This pipeline played a crucial role in ensuring a steady oil supply for
wartime needs and is considered a major engineering achievement in U.S.
history.

16Q16. The roads laid along international boundaries are called:
1. International Roads
2. International Highways
3. District Roads
4. Border Roads

4. Border Roads
Border Roads are those roads that are constructed and maintained along
international boundaries of a country.
In India, these roads are developed and managed by the Border Roads
Organisation (BRO), which plays a crucial role in ensuring defense
preparedness, connectivity, and transportation in remote border areas.
They are strategically important for security, trade, and accessibility in
mountainous and difficult terrains such as Ladakh, Arunachal Pradesh, and
Sikkim.

17Q17. Which of the following transportation mode is most suited for large
volumes of bulky materials over long distances within a country?
1. Air Transportation
2. Road Transportation
3. Rail Transportation
4. Pipelines

3. Rail Transportation
Railways are best suited for carrying large volumes of heavy and bulky
materials—like coal, iron ore, cement, and food grains—over long distances
within a country.
They are cost-effective, energy-efficient, and can transport goods in bulk at
once, making them ideal for industrial and commercial purposes.
In contrast:
• Air transport is fast but expensive and unsuitable for heavy goods.
• Road transport is flexible but better for short to medium distances.
• Pipelines are specific to liquids and gases, not general bulky goods.

18Q18. Identify the correct statements about pipelines.
(A) Pipelines are extensively used to transport liquids and gases.
(B) Pipelines can also be used to transport liquefied coal.
(C) Milk is not supplied through pipelines in any country of the world as it is
unhealthy.
(D) LPG is supplied only through gas cylinders for safety reasons.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (C) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A) and (B) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

3. (A) and (B) only
• (A) is correct because pipelines are mainly used to transport liquids
and gases such as petroleum, natural gas, and water over long
distances efficiently.
• (B) is correct since pipelines can also be used to transport liquefied
coal in the form of slurry.
• (C) is incorrect because milk is supplied through pipelines in dairy
plants for processing and packaging.
• (D) is incorrect since LPG is also supplied through pipelines to
households and industries, not just through gas cylinders.

19Q19. Arrange the following railway stations of the Trans Siberian Railway
from west to east.
(A) Moscow

(B) Kazan
(C) Omsk
(D) Chita
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (C), (B), (D)
2. (C), (A), (B), (D)
3. (A), (B), (C), (D)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

3. (A), (B), (C), (D)
The Trans-Siberian Railway runs across Russia from west to east, connecting
Moscow in the west to Vladivostok in the east.
The correct order of the stations from west to east is:
• Moscow → the western starting point of the railway.
• Kazan → located east of Moscow.
• Omsk → further east in southwestern Siberia.

• Chita → located near the eastern end of the line, before Vladivostok.
Hence, the correct order from west to east is (A) Moscow → (B) Kazan
→ (C) Omsk → (D) Chita.

20Q20. Which one out of the following is least urbanized state of India?
1. Himachal Pradesh
2. Goa
3. Rajasthan
4. Maharashtra

1. Himachal Pradesh
Among the given options, Himachal Pradesh is the least urbanized state of
India.
Only a small portion of its population lives in urban areas because:
• The state is mostly hilly and mountainous, making large-scale urban
development difficult.
• The majority of people are engaged in agriculture, horticulture, and
forestry, which are rural-based activities.
In contrast, Goa and Maharashtra are highly urbanized, and Rajasthan has a
higher level of urbanization than Himachal Pradesh.

21Q21. Which of the following age group belongs to the adolescents
population?
1. 5-10 Years
2. 10-19 Years
3. 20-30 Years
4. 30-45 Years

2. 10–19 Years
The adolescent population refers to individuals in the transition stage
between childhood and adulthood.
According to the World Health Organization (WHO) and Census of India,
adolescents are those aged 10 to 19 years.
This is the stage of rapid physical, emotional, and social development, where
individuals undergo puberty and prepare for adulthood.

22Q22. Arrange the following Indian towns from ancient to modern period
according to their times of evolution.
(A) Chandigarh
(B) Nagpur
(C) Madurai
(D) Surat
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (C), (B), (D)

3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

4. (C), (B), (D), (A)
The towns can be arranged according to their periods of evolution as
follows:
• (C) Madurai → Ancient town — One of the oldest cities in India,
known for the Meenakshi Temple and as a major cultural and trade
center of the Sangam period.
• (B) Nagpur → Medieval town — Developed later as a center of
administration and trade under regional kingdoms.

• (D) Surat → Colonial period town — Flourished during the Mughal
and British periods as a major port city for trade.
• (A) Chandigarh → Modern town — A planned city developed after
India’s independence (1950s) as the capital of Punjab and Haryana.
Correct sequence: Madurai → Nagpur → Surat → Chandigarh (C, B, D, A)

23Q23. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(Linguistic family)
(Branch/Group)
(A) Indo-European (Aryan)
(I) Iranian
(B) Sino-Tibetan (Kirata)
(II) Munda
(C) Austric (Nishada)
(III) North Assam
(D) Dravidian (Dravida)
(IV) North Dravidian

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
3. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

3. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
Here’s the correct matching of Linguistic families with their respective
branches/groups:
• (A) Indo-European (Aryan) → (I) Iranian
o The Indo-European family includes the Indo-Aryan and Iranian
branches.
• (B) Sino-Tibetan (Kirata) → (III) North Assam
o This family is mainly spoken in the Himalayan and North-
Eastern regions, including North Assam.
• (C) Austric (Nishada) → (II) Munda
o The Austric or Austro-Asiatic family includes the Munda
languages spoken in central and eastern India.
• (D) Dravidian (Dravida) → (IV) North Dravidian
o The Dravidian family is divided into North and South Dravidian
groups, spoken mainly in southern India.
Correct pairing: (A)–(I), (B)–(III), (C)–(II), (D)–(IV)

24Q24. Which of the following criteria is NOT correct as per the definition of
urban settlement given by the Census of India in 1991?
1. Place having minimum population of 5000.
2. At Least 50 percent of male workers are engaged in non-agricultural
pursuits.
3. Place having a density of population of at least 400 person per square
kilometer.
4. All places which have a municipality, corporation, cantonment board or
Notified town area committee.

3. Place having a density of population of at least 400 persons per
square kilometer.
According to the Census of India (1991), an urban settlement is defined
based on the following criteria:
1. The place must have a minimum population of 5,000.
2. At least 75% of the male working population should be engaged in
non-agricultural activities.

3. The population density should be at least 400 persons per square
kilometer.
4. All places with a municipality, corporation, cantonment board, or
notified town area committee are also classified as urban.
Hence, option 3 is NOT correct because the correct percentage of male
workers engaged in non-agricultural pursuits is 75%, not 50%.

25Q25. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(Town Name)
(Town Type)
(A) Chandigarh
(I) Administrative Town
(B) Kandla
(II) Transport Town

(C) Jharia
(III) Mining Town
(D) Jalandhar
(IV) Garrison Town

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
3. (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
Here’s the correct matching of towns with their types:
• (A) Chandigarh → (I) Administrative Town
o Chandigarh is a planned city and serves as the capital of Punjab
and Haryana, functioning mainly as an administrative center.
• (B) Kandla → (II) Transport Town
o Kandla, located in Gujarat, is a major port, developed for trade
and transportation purposes.
• (C) Jharia → (III) Mining Town
o Jharia, in Jharkhand, is known for its coal mines and is one of
India’s most important mining centers.
• (D) Jalandhar → (IV) Garrison Town
o Jalandhar, in Punjab, is home to a major military base, making it
a garrison town.
Correct matching: (A)–(I), (B)–(II), (C)–(III), (D)–(IV)

26Q26. Post-independence, the Indian government imported the High Yield
Varieties of wheat from _________________.
1. Philippines
2. Mexico
3. Russia
4. Japan

2. Mexico
After independence, India faced severe food shortages. To increase
agricultural productivity, the government launched the Green Revolution in
the 1960s.
During this period, India imported High-Yield Variety (HYV) seeds of wheat
from Mexico, developed by Dr. Norman E. Borlaug, an American agronomist
working in Mexico.

These HYV seeds helped significantly increase wheat production in India,
especially in states like Punjab, Haryana, and Uttar Pradesh, transforming
the country from a food-deficient nation to a self-sufficient one in grain
production.

27Q27. Which of the following state does NOT have high levels of groundwater
utilization?
1. Odisha
2. Haryana
3. Punjab
4. Tamil Nadu

1. Odisha
Odisha does not have high levels of groundwater utilization compared to
states like Punjab, Haryana, and Tamil Nadu, where agriculture is heavily
dependent on irrigation through groundwater.
In Odisha, most agriculture still depends on rainfall and surface water
sources (like rivers and canals) rather than groundwater. The groundwater
exploitation in Odisha remains relatively low because of:
• Adequate rainfall,
• Lesser dependence on tube wells, and
• Large forested and hilly areas where groundwater extraction is
limited.
In contrast, Punjab, Haryana, and Tamil Nadu are facing over-exploitation of
groundwater due to intensive irrigation and overuse for agriculture.

28Q28. Mumbai High is famous for _________________.
1. Petroleum Reserves
2. Coal Reserves
3. Iron Ore Reserves
4. Copper Reserves

1. Petroleum Reserves
Mumbai High, also known as Bombay High, is an offshore oil field located in
the Arabian Sea, about 160 km west of Mumbai, Maharashtra. It was
discovered in 1974 and is managed by ONGC (Oil and Natural Gas
Corporation).
It is India’s largest oil-producing region, contributing a major share of the
country’s crude petroleum output. The petroleum extracted from Mumbai
High is refined in nearby refineries such as Mumbai and Trombay.
Hence, Mumbai High is famous for its petroleum reserves, not for coal, iron
ore, or copper.

29Q29. Which of the followings is a target group development programme?
1. Command Area Development Programme
2. Drought Prone Area Development Programme

3. Desert Development Programme
4. Small Farmers Development Agency

4. Small Farmers Development Agency

The Small Farmers Development Agency (SFDA) is a target group
development programme launched by the Government of India in the
1970s. It specifically aims to assist small and marginal farmers, who often
face challenges like lack of capital, technology, and irrigation facilities.
The programme focuses on:
• Providing financial and technical assistance,
• Promoting modern agricultural practices, and
• Increasing agricultural productivity and income of small farmers.
The other programmes — Command Area Development, Drought Prone
Area Development, and Desert Development — are area-based programmes,
designed for improving specific geographic regions rather than focusing on
a target group.

30Q30. Arrange the following river basins in descending order according to
their size.
(A) Mahanadi
(B) Godavari
(C) Ganga
(D) Pennar
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (D), (B), (C), (A)
2. (B), (C), (А), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (A), (D)

4. (C), (B), (A), (D)
When arranged in descending order of their basin size (area covered by the
river system), the correct sequence is:
Ganga → Godavari → Mahanadi → Pennar
• Ganga Basin – It is the largest river basin in India, covering parts of
several northern states including Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar,
and West Bengal.
• Godavari Basin – Known as the Dakshin Ganga (Ganga of the South), it
is the second largest basin in India, draining much of central and
southern India.
• Mahanadi Basin – It is smaller than Godavari and drains parts of
Chhattisgarh and Odisha.
• Pennar Basin – It is a relatively small basin located in southern India,
mainly in Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka.
Hence, the order according to size is: Ganga (C) > Godavari (B) >
Mahanadi (A) > Pennar (D)

31Q31. Identify the correct statements about Common Property Resources.
(A) According to ownership, land can be classified as - Private land and
Common Property Resources.
(B) The land owned by the state meant for use of the community is called
Common Property Resource.
(C) The Common Property Resource is of particular relevance for the
livelihood of landless and marginal farmers in rural areas.
(D) The ownership of Common Property Resource land lies with a group of
people living in that area.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (C) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

4. (B), (C) and (D) only

Common Property Resources (CPRs) are natural or man-made resources
that are accessible to all members of a community and managed collectively
for common benefit. These include pastures, ponds, forests, and village
grazing lands.
• (B) Correct — Land owned by the state or community for the use
of the public is known as Common Property Resource.
• (C) Correct — CPRs are vital for landless and marginal farmers, as
they depend on these areas for fuel, fodder, water, and grazing.
• (D) Correct — The ownership and management of CPRs generally
rest with the local community or village panchayat.
• (A) ❌ Incorrect — Land is generally classified as private, community,
and public land, not just private and common property.
Hence, the correct answer is (B), (C), and (D) only.

32Q32. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(Agricultural Land use
Category)
(Characteristics)
(A) Culturable Waste
Land
(I) Land which has been left uncultivated for
one or less than one agricultural year.
(B) Current Fallow
(II) Land which has been left uncultivated
for more than five years.
(C) Fallow other than
Current Fallow
(IV) Land which has been left uncultivated
for more than one year but less than five
years.
(D) Net Sown Area
(III) Physical extent of land on which crops
are sown and harvested.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
2. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

2. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
Each category of agricultural land use in India is classified based on how
long the land has remained uncultivated or how it is used for crops:
• (A) Culturable Waste Land – (II)
Land that has been left uncultivated for more than five years. It can
still be brought under cultivation with some effort.
• (B) Current Fallow – (I)
Land left uncultivated for one or less than one agricultural year,
usually to restore soil fertility.
• (C) Fallow other than Current Fallow – (IV)
Land that has been left uncultivated for more than one year but less
than five years.
• (D) Net Sown Area – (III)
The actual area on which crops are sown and harvested during a year.
Hence, the correct matching is: (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)

33Q33. Which one of the following activities involve the collection, production
and dissemination of information or even the production of information?
1. Primary Activity
2. Tertiary Activity
3. Secondary Activity
4. Quaternary Activity

4. Quaternary Activity

Quaternary activities are concerned with the collection, processing,
production, and dissemination of information. These activities are often
called knowledge-based activities and include sectors like research,
information technology, consultancy, education, and media.
• People engaged in these activities work with information and
knowledge rather than physical goods.
• Examples include software developers, data analysts, teachers, and
scientists.
Thus, quaternary activities represent the information and knowledge
economy of modern societies.

34Q34. Which one out of the following is incorrect about Pawan Hans limited?
1. Helicopter service in hilly areas.
2. Helicopter service to petroleum sector.

3. Helicopter service in tourism sector.
4. It is widely used in central India for tourism.

4. It is widely used in central India for tourism.
Pawan Hans Limited is a government-owned helicopter service company in
India. It mainly provides helicopter transport in hilly and remote areas, to
the petroleum sector, and for tourism purposes — especially in regions like
the Northeast, Jammu & Kashmir, and Uttarakhand.
However, it is not widely used in central India for tourism, making option 4
incorrect.

35Q35. Match the followings:
List–I
List–II
(Seaports)
(State)
(A) Kandla
(IV) Gujarat
(B) Haldia
(III) West Bengal
(C) Marmagao
(I) Goa
(D) Paradwip
(II) Odisha

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
3. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

1. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
Each major seaport in India is located in a specific coastal state:
• (A) Kandla – (IV) Gujarat
Kandla Port (now Deendayal Port) is located in Gujarat and is one of
the largest ports handling petroleum, chemicals, and grains.
• (B) Haldia – (III) West Bengal
Haldia Port is an important riverine port on the Hugli River in West
Bengal, assisting Kolkata Port in managing trade.
• (C) Marmagao – (I) Goa
Marmagao Port is a natural harbor in Goa, mainly known for
exporting iron ore.
• (D) Paradwip – (II) Odisha

Paradwip Port in Odisha handles bulk cargo like coal, fertilizers, and
iron ore.
Hence, the correct matching is: (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

36Q36. In the following identify the correct statements about the Konkan
Railway.
(A) It was constructed in 1998.
(B) It connects Roha in Maharashtra to Mangalore in Karnataka.
(C) It is considered an engineering marvel.
(D) The states of Maharashtra, Tamil Nadu and Karnataka are partners in it.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (C) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

2. (A), (B) and (C) only
• (A) The Konkan Railway was constructed and became operational in
1998, connecting the western coastal states.
• (B) It connects Roha in Maharashtra to Mangalore in Karnataka,
covering the Konkan coast through Goa.
• (C) The railway is considered an engineering marvel because it passes
through rugged terrain, involving numerous tunnels, bridges, and
curves.
• (D) This is incorrect because the partner states are Maharashtra, Goa,
and Karnataka, not Tamil Nadu. ❌
Hence, the correct statements are (A), (B), and (C) only.

37Q37. Which of the following is NOT an example of mass communication?
1. Cinema

2. Radio
3. Letters
4. Newspapers

3. Letters
Mass communication refers to the process of transmitting information to a
large audience through mediums like television, radio, newspapers, and
cinema.
• Cinema, radio, and newspapers reach a wide audience simultaneously
— they are examples of mass communication.
• Letters, on the other hand, are a form of personal communication, as
they involve one-to-one or limited exchange of information.
Hence, letters are not an example of mass communication.

38Q38. Arrange the following commodities in descending order according to
their share in India's import (2021-2022)?
(A) Petroleum, oil and Lubricants
(B) Chemical Products
(C) Fertilizers and fertilizer manufacturing
(D) Iron and Steel
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (C), (D), (B)
3. (C), (A), (D), (B)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
In India’s import structure (2021–2022), the major commodities are
ranked by their share as follows:

• Petroleum, oil, and lubricants have the largest share, as India imports
large quantities of crude oil to meet its energy needs.
• Chemical products come next due to the demand from industries like
pharmaceuticals and fertilizers.
• Fertilizers and fertilizer manufacturing materials are also significant
imports, as India’s agriculture sector depends heavily on them.
• Iron and steel rank lower compared to the above categories.
Therefore, the correct descending order is (A) Petroleum, oil and
lubricants → (B) Chemical Products → (C) Fertilizers → (D) Iron and Steel.

39Q39. Which one of the following type of pollution is considered as the
World's Top Environmental Health Risk by the World Health Organization?
1. Noise Pollution
2. Water Pollution
3. Air pollution
4. Land Pollution

3. Air Pollution
The World Health Organization (WHO) has identified air pollution as the
world’s top environmental health risk. It causes serious health issues such
as respiratory diseases, heart problems, and premature deaths.
Air pollution results mainly from vehicle emissions, industrial activities,
burning of fossil fuels, and agricultural waste. It affects both urban and rural
populations and contributes to global challenges like climate change.
Hence, air pollution is considered the most critical environmental
health risk worldwide.

40Q40. Identify the correct statements about urban waste disposal.
(A) The environmental pollution due to solid waste is not very significant in
urban areas of India due to low level of urbanisation.
(B) Dumping industrial waste into rivers causes water pollution.
(C) Solid waste refers to a variety of old and used articles.
(D) Solid waste from industrial units is collected and disposed off on low-
lying public grounds.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:

1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (C) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only
Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions.
Trade is essentially the buying and selling of items produced elsewhere. All
the services in retail and wholesale trading or commerce are specifically
intended for profit. The towns and cities where all these works take place
are known as trading centres.
The rise of trading from barter at the local level to money-exchange on an
international scale has produced many centres and institutions, such as
trading centres or collection and distribution points.
Trading centres may be divided into rural and urban marketing centres.
Rural marketing centres cater to nearby settlements. These are quasi-urban
centres. They serve as trading centres of the most rudimentary type. Here,
personal and professional services are not well-developed. These form local
collecting and distributing centres. Most of these have mandis (wholesale
markets) and also retailing areas. They are not urban centres per se but are
significant centres for making available goods and services which are most
frequently demanded by rural folk.
Periodic markets in rural areas are found where there are no regular
markets and local periodic markets are organised at different temporal
intervals. These may be weekly, bi-weekly markets where people from the
surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand. These
markets are held on specified dates and move from one place to another.
The shopkeepers, thus, remain busy all day while a large area is served by
them.
Urban marketing centres have more widely specialised urban services.
They provide ordinary goods and services as well as many of the
specialised goods and services required by people. Urban centres,
therefore, offer manufactured goods as well as many specialised developed
markets, e.g. markets for labour, housing, semi-or finished products.
Services of educational institutions and professionals such as teachers,

lawyers, consultants, physicians, dentists and veterinary doctors are
available.

4. (B), (C) and (D) only
• (A) is incorrect because environmental pollution due to solid waste is
a major problem in Indian urban areas due to rapid urbanization and
inadequate waste management systems.
• (B) is correct as dumping industrial waste into rivers leads to water
pollution, harming aquatic life and human health.
• (C) is correct since solid waste includes old and used materials like
plastics, metals, paper, and household garbage.
• (D) is correct because many industrial units dispose of solid waste in
low-lying open areas, causing land pollution and health hazards.
Therefore, the correct statements are (B), (C), and (D) only.

41Q41. The towns and cities where the buying and selling of goods takes place
are known as:
1. quasi-urban centres
2. trading centres
3. periodic markets
4. departmental stores

2. Trading centres
The passage clearly states that towns and cities where buying and selling of
goods take place are called trading centres. These are places where goods
are exchanged for money, and various services related to retail and
wholesale trade operate for profit.
Hence, “trading centres” is the correct answer.

42Q42. Which one of the following are quasi-urban centers and cater to nearby
settlements?
1. Urban marketing centres
2. Periodic markets
3. Rural marketing centres
4. Chain stores

3. Rural marketing centres
The passage mentions that rural marketing centres cater to nearby
settlements and are described as quasi-urban centres. These centres act as
local collecting and distributing points and provide basic goods and services
needed by rural people, though they are not fully urban in nature.
Therefore, rural marketing centres is the correct answer.

43Q43. These markets are found where there are no regular markets and
organised at different temporal intervals, where people from the
surrounding areas meet their temporally accumulated demand.
1. Retail Trading
2. Urban marketing centres
3. Rural marketing centres
4. Periodic markets

4. Periodic markets
The passage says where regular markets don’t exist, weekly/bi-weekly
markets are held on fixed days and move from place to place to meet the
temporarily accumulated demand of nearby people—these are periodic
markets.

44Q44. Which of the following services is generally NOT a characteristic feature
of the urban marketing centres?
1. Consultants
2. Local collection and distribution
3. Veterinary doctors
4. Markets for labour

2. Local collection and distribution
The passage states that local collecting and distributing centres are typical
of rural marketing centres (quasi-urban). Urban marketing centres are
characterised by specialised services such as consultants, veterinary
doctors, and markets for labour, housing, and products. Hence, “local
collection and distribution” is not a typical urban feature.

45Q45. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of rural market centres?
1. They are pure urban centres with specialisation in rural products.

2. They are most rudimentary type of trading centres.

3. Here professional and personal services are not well-developed.
4. Most of these have mandis (wholesale markets).
Read the given passage carefully and answer the following questions.
An uneven spatial distribution of the population in India suggests a close
relationship between the population and physical, socio-economic and
historical factors. As far as the physical factors are concerned, it is clear that
climate along with the terrain and the availability of water largely
determine the pattern of the population distribution. Consequently, we
observe that the North Indian Plains, deltas and Coastal Plains have a
higher proportion of the population than the interior districts of the
southern and central Indian States, the Himalayas, and some of the north-
eastern and western states. However, development of irrigation
(Rajasthan), availability of mineral and energy resources (Jharkhand) and
development of transport network (Peninsular States) have resulted in a
moderate to high concentration of population in areas which were
previously very thinly populated.
Among the socio-economic and historical factors of the distribution of
population, important ones are the evolution of settled agriculture and
agricultural development; the pattern of human settlement; development of
transport networks, industrialisation and urbanisation. It is observed that
the regions falling in the river plains and coastal areas of India have
remained the regions of larger population concentration. Even though the
use of natural resources like land and water in these regions has shown the
sign of degradation, the concentration of the population remains high
because of the early history of human settlement and the development of
transport networks. On the other hand, the urban regions of Delhi, Mumbai,
Kolkata, Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai and Jaipur have high
concentrations of population due to industrial development and
urbanisation, drawing large numbers of rural-urban migrants.

1. They are pure urban centres with specialisation in rural products.
The passage clearly mentions that rural marketing centres are quasi-urban
centres, not pure urban ones. They serve nearby villages, provide basic

goods and services, and have mandis (wholesale markets), but lack
professional and specialised services typical of urban centres.
Hence, the statement “They are pure urban centres with specialisation in
rural products” is incorrect.

46Q46. An uneven spatial distribution of the population in India does not
suggest a close relationship between the population and which one of the
following?
1. Physical factors

2. Literacy Rate

3. Socio-economic factors
4. Historical factors

2. Literacy Rate
The passage states that uneven population distribution in India is closely
related to physical, socio-economic, and historical factors. Literacy rate is
not mentioned as a primary factor here, so it is the option that does not
explain the observed distribution.

47Q47. Development of irrigation has resulted in moderate to high
concentration of population in which of the following state?
1. Rajasthan
2. Jharkhand
3. Himachal Pradesh
4. Sikkim

1. Rajasthan
The passage mentions that development of irrigation has led to a moderate
to high concentration of population in Rajasthan, a region that was
previously sparsely populated due to its arid climate and scarce water
resources.
The construction of canals, such as the Indira Gandhi Canal, made irrigation
possible in large parts of western Rajasthan, promoting agriculture and
settlement growth.
Hence, Rajasthan is the correct answer.

48Q48. Which of the following is NOT a socio-economic or historical factor of
the distribution of the population?
1. Evolution of settled agriculture
2. Industrialisation and urbanisation
3. Development of transport network
4. Availability of water

4. Availability of water
The passage states that socio-economic and historical factors influencing
population distribution include the evolution of settled agriculture,
industrialisation and urbanisation, and the development of transport
networks.
The availability of water, on the other hand, is a physical factor, not a socio-
economic or historical one. It affects where people live but is determined by
nature rather than human development.

49Q49. Urban regions of India have a high concentration of the population due
to ___________________ .
1. Industrial development and urbanisation
2. Agricultural development
3. Pattern of human settlement
4. Availability of mineral and energy resources

1. Industrial development and urbanisation

According to the passage, urban regions like Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata,
Bengaluru, Pune, Ahmedabad, Chennai, and Jaipur have high population
concentrations because of industrial development and urbanisation. These
cities attract large numbers of rural-urban migrants seeking employment
and better living conditions, leading to dense urban populations.

50Q50. Which factor has resulted in a moderate to high concentration of
population in areas of the Peninsular States which were previously very
thinly populated?

1. Availability of mineral and energy resources
2. Development of irrigation facilities
3. Development of transport network

4. Socio-economic and historical factors

3. Development of transport network
The passage clearly mentions that in the Peninsular States, the development
of the transport network has resulted in a moderate to high concentration of
population in areas that were earlier very sparsely populated. Improved
connectivity through roads, railways, and ports has encouraged trade,
mobility, and settlement in these regions, transforming them into more
populated areas.

FAQs

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