| 1 | Q1. Which of the following is a voluntary scheme of certification of agricultural products (raw and processed) for safeguarding the health of consumers? 1. AGMARK 2. FSSAI 3. ISI 4. CAC | The correct answer is Option 1. AGMARK AGMARK is a voluntary certification scheme for agricultural products - both raw and processed - in India. It ensures the quality and purity of agricultural commodities and helps safeguard consumer health. It is implemented under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking) Act, 1937, and is managed by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection (DMI), under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare. |
| 2 | Q2. You are a trainer for implementation of Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) in a food manufacturing unit. Which of the following best describes GMP? 1. Involves identification of hazards, assessment of chances of occurrence of hazards during each step/stage in the food chain 2. Ensuring that processors take proactive steps to ensure that their products are safe; enabling to minimise or eliminate contamination and false labelling 3. Promote the development of standardisation and related activities in the world 4. Establishing international standards to protect the health of the consumers and facilitate food and agricultural trade | The correct answer is Option 2. Ensuring that processors take proactive steps to ensure that their products are safe; enabling to minimise or eliminate contamination and false labelling Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) are a set of systematic procedures and guidelines that ensure food safety, quality, and hygiene during production, processing, packaging, and storage. They help manufacturers prevent contamination, adulteration, and mislabelling by maintaining proper sanitation, equipment design, personnel hygiene, and documentation. GMP focuses on preventive action - ensuring that products are consistently produced and controlled according to quality standards. |
| 3 | Q3. Deriving satisfaction from work itself, signifies connotation of work as __________________ . 1. a livelihood 2. a job 3. a career 4. a calling
Previous Years' Paper Common University Entrance Test for UG Programmes Entrance Exam, 2025 CUET-UG - Home Science (After the list of questions, the solution will Start.) | The correct answer is Option 4. a calling When a person derives satisfaction and fulfillment from the work itself, rather than external rewards like money or status, it reflects the idea of work as a calling. A calling is a deep-seated motivation or passion for one’s work, where the individual feels that their job has a purpose and meaning beyond personal gain. This differs from: • Livelihood: Work done for survival or income. • Job: Work done primarily for monetary compensation. • Career: Long-term professional growth or achievement. |
| 4 | Q4. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment and appointment to any office under the State? 1. Article 16 (1) 2. Article 22 (1) 3. Article 16 (4) 4. Article 20 (1) | The correct answer is Option 1. Article 16 (1) Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters related to employment or appointment to any office under the State. It ensures that no citizen is discriminated against in public employment on grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence. This article is a part of the Fundamental Rights (Articles 12–35) under Part III of the Constitution and upholds the principle of equal opportunity in public services. |
| 5 | Q5. Nutritional assessment of an individual involves obtaining information on which of the following parameters? (A) Anthropometric measurements (B) Dietary assessment (C) Clinical examination (D) Biochemical laboratory analysis Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B) and (D) only 2. (A), (B) and (C) only 3. (A), (B), (C) and (D) 4. (B), (C) and (D) only | The correct answer is Option 3. (A), (B), (C) and (D) Nutritional assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's nutritional status. It involves collecting information from multiple parameters to identify deficiencies or imbalances. The main components are: • (A) Anthropometric measurements: Includes measurements like height, weight, BMI, mid-upper arm circumference, and skinfold thickness to assess body composition and growth patterns. • (B) Dietary assessment: Evaluates food intake through methods like 24-hour recall, food frequency questionnaires, or diet history to determine nutrient adequacy. • (C) Clinical examination: Detects visible signs and symptoms of nutrient deficiencies such as pallor (anaemia), oedema (protein deficiency), or skin lesions (vitamin deficiency). • (D) Biochemical laboratory analysis: Involves blood, urine, or tissue tests to measure levels of nutrients, metabolites, or enzymes for accurate diagnosis of nutritional status. |
| 6 | Q6. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II Examples Type of processed foods (A) Pickles, jam, marmalade, squashes (I) Functional foods (B) Probiotics (II) Formulated foods (C) Frozen peas and frozen vegetables, canned fruits and vegetables (III) Manufactured foods (D) Bread, biscuits, ice cream (IV) Preserved foods
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) 2. (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV) 3. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) 4. (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II) | The correct answer is Option 2. (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV) Let’s match each example with its correct type of processed food: • (A) Pickles, jam, marmalade, squashes → (III) Manufactured foods These are manufactured products prepared by processing raw ingredients through heating, boiling, and mixing. • (B) Probiotics → (II) Formulated foods Probiotics are formulated foods that contain beneficial microorganisms to promote gut health and improve digestion. • (C) Frozen peas and frozen vegetables, canned fruits and vegetables → (I) Functional foods These are functional foods because they retain nutrients and provide additional health benefits when consumed. • (D) Bread, biscuits, ice cream → (IV) Preserved foods These are preserved foods since methods like freezing, baking, and drying help in extending shelf life. |
| 7 | Q7. Which of the following are examples of Complementary Colour Scheme? (A) Blue & Orange (B) Red & Green (C) Green & Yellow (D) Purple & Yellow Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B) and (D) only 2. (A), (B) and (C) only 3. (A), (B), (C) and (D) 4. (B), (C) and (D) only | The correct answer is Option 1. (A), (B) and (D) only A complementary colour scheme consists of two colours that are opposite each other on the colour wheel. When placed together, these colours create strong contrast and vibrant visuals. Examples of complementary colour pairs include: • (A) Blue & Orange → Opposite on the colour wheel. • (B) Red & Green → Classic complementary pair. • (D) Purple & Yellow → Direct opposites, offering high contrast. (C) Green & Yellow are analogous colours, meaning they are next to each other on the colour wheel, not complementary. |
| 8 | Q8. Arrange stages of the Fashion Cycle in correct sequence: (A) Decline in Popularity (B) Peak of Popularity (C) Introduction of a Style (D) Obsolescence Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (C), (D) 2. (C) (B), (A), (D) 3. (B), (A), (D), (C) 4. (C), (B), (D), (A) | The correct answer is Option 2. (C), (B), (A), (D) The fashion cycle represents the life span of a fashion trend - from its introduction to its decline and eventual disappearance. The stages occur in the following sequence: 1. (C) Introduction of a Style: A new style is introduced, usually by designers or fashion innovators. It attracts attention but is adopted by a limited group initially. 2. (B) Peak of Popularity: The style gains mass acceptance and becomes a trend. Demand is high, and it is widely available. 3. (A) Decline in Popularity: As people move to newer trends, interest and demand for the style begin to decrease. 4. (D) Obsolescence: The style becomes outdated and is no longer worn by the public. |
| 9 | Q9. According to the Quality of Work Life (QWL) approach, the employees are considered to be __________________ by the organizations. Fill in the blank with suitable option. 1. Liability 2. Assets 3. Debts 4. Burden | The correct answer is Option 2. Assets According to the Quality of Work Life (QWL) approach, employees are viewed as valuable assets of an organization - not merely resources or liabilities. This perspective emphasizes improving working conditions, ensuring job satisfaction, and promoting employee well-being. Organizations that adopt QWL focus on: • Employee motivation and engagement • Work-life balance • Safe and healthy work environments • Opportunities for growth and development By treating employees as assets, organizations recognize their contribution to productivity, innovation, and long-term success. |
| 10 | Q10. What are rules or standards governing the conduct of a person or the members of a profession known as? 1. Values 2. Dignity of Labour 3. Ethics 4. Assumptions | The correct answer is Option 3. Ethics Ethics refers to the set of rules, principles, or standards that govern the behavior and conduct of individuals, especially in a professional or organizational context. It helps determine what is right or wrong, fair or unfair, and guides decision-making and actions. In a professional setting, ethics ensure integrity, honesty, responsibility, and respect in dealings with others - maintaining the reputation and trustworthiness of the profession. |
| 11 | Q11. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of ergonomics? 1. Increases productivity 2. Diminishes morale of workers 3. Decreases absenteeism 4. Reduces mistakes and need to do the work again | The correct answer is Option 2. Diminishes morale of workers Ergonomics is the scientific study of designing and arranging workplaces, products, and systems so that they fit the people who use them. Its goal is to improve efficiency, safety, and comfort at work. The benefits of ergonomics include: • Increases productivity: Workers perform better when comfortable and less fatigued. • Decreases absenteeism: A well-designed workspace reduces strain and injury, leading to fewer sick days. • Reduces mistakes: Improved comfort and better posture help workers stay focused and reduce errors. However, diminishing morale of workers is not a benefit - in fact, ergonomics enhances morale by improving working conditions. |
| 12 | Q12. Which of the following fashion designer made use of tents and wagon covers to make cargo pants? 1. Levi Strauss 2. Isaac Singer 3. Louis Vuitton 4. Coco Chanel | The correct answer is Option 1. Levi Strauss Levi Strauss, a German-American fashion entrepreneur, is best known as the founder of Levi Strauss & Co. and the creator of denim jeans. During the mid-19th century, he used durable canvas materials such as tents and wagon covers to make sturdy work pants for miners and laborers during the California Gold Rush. These early designs later evolved into cargo pants and denim jeans, known for their strength and practicality. Levi Strauss’s innovation laid the foundation for modern workwear and casual fashion. |
| 13 | Q13. Which of the following is a type of 'weaving defect'? 1. Slub 2. Colour run 3. Chafe
4. Broken end | The correct answer is Option 4. Broken end A weaving defect occurs during the weaving process - when the warp and weft threads are interlaced to form fabric. Such defects can affect the appearance, strength, and quality of the fabric. Common weaving defects include: • Broken end: A warp yarn breaks during weaving, leaving a missing thread line in the fabric — a classic weaving defect. • Broken pick: A weft yarn break, leading to gaps across the fabric. • Floats, snarls, and reed marks — all related to weaving irregularities. On the other hand: • Slub → is a spinning defect (uneven thickness in yarn). • Colour run → is a dyeing defect. • Chafe → is a finishing or surface defect caused by friction. |
| 14 | Q14. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II Type of stain Chemical used for stain removal (A) Blood (I) Methylated spirit (B) Tea/Coffee (II) Javelle water (C) Lipstick (III) Ammonia (D) Curry (IV) Borax
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) 2. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) 3. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II) 4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) | The correct answer is Option 2. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III) Each type of stain requires a specific chemical for effective removal based on its composition. Here’s the correct matching: • (A) Blood – (II) Javelle water Javelle water (a chlorine-based bleaching agent) is effective for removing protein-based stains like blood after rinsing with cold water. • (B) Tea/Coffee – (I) Methylated spirit Methylated spirit helps dissolve tannin-based stains such as tea or coffee from fabric. • (C) Lipstick – (IV) Borax Lipstick stains contain oils and waxes that can be effectively removed with borax solution. • (D) Curry – (III) Ammonia Ammonia helps neutralize and remove turmeric and oil-based stains found in curry. |
| 15 | Q15. You are a catering manager. Arrange the following steps in food service management in the order of implementation. (A) Reporting (B) Staffing (C) Planning (D) Directing and Delegating Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (C), (D) 2. (A), (C), (B), (D) 3. (C), (B), (D), (A) 4. (C) (D), (B), (A) | The correct answer is Option 3. (C), (B), (D), (A) In food service management, the process follows the general management sequence to ensure efficient operation and coordination. Here’s the logical order of implementation: 1. (C) Planning – The first step involves setting objectives, policies, and procedures for food service, such as menu planning, budgeting, and resource allocation. 2. (B) Staffing – After planning, the next step is recruiting, training, and organizing staff to execute the plan efficiently. 3. (D) Directing and Delegating – This step involves guiding and motivating staff, assigning tasks, and ensuring smooth operations in food production and service. 4. (A) Reporting – Finally, reporting evaluates performance and provides feedback to improve efficiency and effectiveness in future operations. |
| 16 | Q16. You are a textile conservator in a museum. Which among the following methods would you choose to minimize the damage caused to a textile artifact stored in your museum?
1. Expose the objects to light of high intensity 2. Minimize the intensity of light falling upon the object 3. Expose objects to light for longer period of time 4. Introduce photo-chemically active radiations from the light | The correct answer is Option 2. Minimize the intensity of light falling upon the object As a textile conservator, protecting delicate fabrics from deterioration is crucial. Light - especially ultraviolet (UV) and visible high-intensity light - can cause fading, discoloration, and weakening of fibers over time. To minimize damage: • The intensity of light should be kept as low as possible, generally below 50 lux for sensitive materials like textiles and paper. • UV radiation should be filtered out using UV filters on windows and light sources. • Exposure time should be minimized — display textiles only for limited durations. On the other hand: • High-intensity light (Option 1) and longer exposure (Option 3) accelerate fading. • Photo-chemically active radiations (Option 4) increase deterioration by breaking molecular bonds in dyes and fibers. |
| 17 | Q17. The principle of all washing machines is to keep the fabric in movement in the washing solution to carry away the dirt. Which among the following method is used for washing garments in a front load washing machine? 1. Spinning 2. Agitation 3. Tumbling 4. Pulsation | The correct answer is Option 3. Tumbling In a front-load washing machine, the tumbling method is used to wash garments effectively. Here’s how it works: • The drum of the washing machine rotates horizontally, lifting clothes up and then dropping them into the water repeatedly. • This tumbling action causes gentle friction between fabrics, helping to dislodge dirt and stains without causing fabric damage. • The motion ensures even distribution of detergent and thorough cleaning while using less water and energy compared to top-load machines. Other methods: • Spinning (Option 1): Used to remove excess water at the end of the wash cycle, not for washing. • Agitation (Option 2): Found in top-load machines with a central agitator that moves clothes back and forth. • Pulsation (Option 4): Used in impeller-type top-load washers, where a rotating disc or plate moves water to clean clothes. |
| 18 | Q18. Your friend is a fashion designer. He/she is planning to launch his/her own fashion business to meet the demands of female wage earners in the age group of 25-45 years. According to you, which type of market segmentation has he/she used to define the target market? 1. Demographic Segmentation 2. Geographic Segmentation 3. Psychographic Segmentation 4. Behavioural Segmentation | The correct answer is Option 1. Demographic Segmentation In marketing, segmentation involves dividing the market into smaller groups of consumers based on shared characteristics. Here, your friend — the fashion designer — is defining the target market based on: • Gender → Female • Age group → 25–45 years • Occupation/Income group → Wage earners These factors are all demographic variables, which include age, gender, income, education, and occupation. This type of segmentation helps design products and marketing strategies suited to a specific group’s needs and purchasing power. Other types (for clarity): • Geographic segmentation: Based on location (city, region, climate). • Psychographic segmentation: Based on lifestyle, interests, personality, or values. • Behavioural segmentation: Based on buying behaviour, brand loyalty, or product usage. |
| 19 | Q19. Which among the following is a 'Principle of Design'? 1. Texture 2. Colour 3. Form/Shape 4. Balance | The correct answer is Option 4. Balance In design, there are two main concepts: • Elements of Design – These are the basic components used to create a design, such as line, shape/form, colour, texture, and space. • Principles of Design – These are the rules that guide how the elements are arranged to create harmony and visual appeal. Balance is one of the Principles of Design, which ensures that visual weight is evenly distributed in a composition. It can be: • Symmetrical balance – both sides are equal and mirror each other. • Asymmetrical balance – both sides are different but still visually balanced. • Radial balance – elements are arranged around a central point. On the other hand: • Texture, Colour, and Form/Shape are Elements of Design, not principles. |
| 20 | Q20. Which among the following is a natural factor responsible for the deterioration of artifacts in a museum? 1. Bad storage 2. Pests
3. Accidents 4. Fire | The correct answer is Option 2. Pests In a museum, artifacts can deteriorate due to various factors, which are generally categorized as natural or man-made. • Natural factors include environmental and biological causes that occur naturally and are not directly caused by human negligence. Among these, pests such as insects, rodents, and microorganisms (like fungi or bacteria) are a major natural cause of deterioration. o They feed on organic materials like textiles, paper, wood, and leather. o This can result in holes, stains, weakening of fibers, and even complete destruction of delicate artifacts. • The other options — bad storage, accidents, and fire — are man-made factors, as they usually occur due to poor handling, negligence, or lack of preventive measures. |
| 21 | Q21. Identify the essential features of Development Communication. (A) It focusses on success stories of people who have adopted new technologies, tried new methods and helped the society (B) It is oriented to socio-economic development and happiness of the people and community at large (C) It aims at giving information and educating the community (D) It combines suitable mass media and interpersonal communication channels for greater impact Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B) and (D) only 2. (A), (B), (C) and (D) 3. (B), (C) and (D) only 4. (A), (C) and (D) only | The correct answer is Option 2. (A), (B), (C) and (D) Development Communication refers to the use of communication to promote social and economic development. It helps people understand, accept, and adopt new ideas, technologies, and behaviors for improving their quality of life. All the given statements correctly describe its essential features: • (A) It highlights success stories of individuals or groups who have brought positive change — inspiring others to follow their example. • (B) It is people-oriented, focusing on the overall socio-economic development and well-being of communities. • (C) It educates and informs communities about new methods, technologies, and practices that contribute to progress. • (D) It uses a mix of mass media (radio, TV, newspapers) and interpersonal communication (meetings, workshops) to ensure messages reach and influence people effectively. |
| 22 | Q22. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II Hospitality Establishment Services (A) Hotel (II) Offers lodging, meals, and other services to its guests (B) Furnished camps (IV) Provide hospitality to people who go hiking, undertake adventure sports, etc. (C) Motel (I) Provides parking facility near the room or a room door that opens out onto the parking lot (D) Resort (III) Offers a broad range of amenities, sports facilities, and leisure activities for ensuring a total vacation experience
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III) 2. (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I) 3. (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (III) 4. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) | The correct answer is Option 2. (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III) This question matches different hospitality establishments with their respective services based on their main functions and the type of guests they cater to. (A) Hotel – (II) Offers lodging, meals, and other services to its guests. Hotels are commercial establishments that provide accommodation, food, and other guest services such as room service, housekeeping, and concierge facilities. (B) Furnished Camps – (IV) Provide hospitality to people who go hiking, undertake adventure sports, etc. Furnished camps are designed for tourists and adventure seekers, providing comfortable temporary accommodation in natural surroundings with basic amenities. (C) Motel – (I) Provides parking facility near the room or a room door that opens out onto the parking lot. Motels are meant for travelers, especially those traveling by road, offering easy access to parking spaces directly connected to rooms for convenience. (D) Resort – (III) Offers a broad range of amenities, sports facilities, and leisure activities for ensuring a total vacation experience. Resorts are destinations for recreation and relaxation, providing luxurious facilities, entertainment options, and activities for a complete vacation experience. |
| 23 | Q23. Arrange the stages of 'Guest Cycle' in correct order of their occurrence: (A) Departure (B) Occupancy (D) Arrival (D) Pre-arrival Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (C), (D) 2. (D), (C), (B), (A) 3. (D), (A), (C), (B) 4. (C), (B), (D), (A) | The correct answer is Option 2. (D), (C), (B), (A) The Guest Cycle in the hospitality industry represents the different stages a guest goes through during their interaction with a hotel—from planning their stay to checking out. The stages occur in the following sequence: (D) Pre-arrival: This is the planning and reservation stage where the guest makes inquiries, books rooms, and receives confirmation. (C) Arrival: The guest physically arrives at the hotel, checks in, and completes registration formalities. (B) Occupancy: During this stage, the guest stays in the hotel, avails services, and enjoys the facilities provided. (A) Departure: The final stage where the guest settles bills, checks out, and leaves the hotel premises. |
| 24 | Q24. Identify the name given to an institutional setting that is particularly designed for the care of infants and young children in the absence of home care. 1. Observation Homes 2. Special Homes 3. Children's Homes 4. Crèche | The correct answer is Option 4. Crèche A Crèche is an institutional setup specifically designed for the care of infants and young children in the absence of home care, especially when parents or guardians are at work. It provides a safe, nurturing environment where trained caregivers look after children’s basic needs such as feeding, resting, and play. Crèches play a vital role in supporting working parents, ensuring the physical, emotional, and social development of young children in a secure and stimulating atmosphere. |
| 25 | Q25. Your mother has purchased gold earring for your sister. Which among the following standardization mark would you advice your mother to check on the product to ensure a quality purchase? 1. Ecomark 2. FSSAI 3. ISI Mark
4. Hallmark | The correct answer is Option 4. Hallmark The Hallmark is a certification mark used to guarantee the purity and fineness of gold and silver jewellery sold in India. It is issued by the Bureau of Indian Standards (BIS). The hallmark ensures that the jewellery meets the standards set for gold purity, such as 24K, 22K, 18K, etc., and provides authenticity to the buyer. The hallmark typically includes: • BIS logo • Purity/fineness mark • Assaying and hallmarking centre’s identification mark • Jeweller’s identification mark |
| 26 | Q26. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II Youth Programme in India Focus/Aim (A) Scouts and Guides (I) Aims at involving college level students in programmes of social service and national development (B) The National Service Scheme (II) Aimed at making the youth participate in the development processes of their respective countries (C) Commonwealth Youth Programme (III) Provides opportunities for students to involve themselves, on a whole-time basis for a short period of one or two years, in programmes of national development (D) The National Service Volunteer Scheme (IV) Aims at developing the character of boys and girls to make them good citizens by inculcating in them a spirit of loyalty, patriotism and thoughtfulness for others
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III) 2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV) 3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III) 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II) | The correct answer is Option 1. (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III) Let’s match each programme with its correct focus/aim: (A) Scouts and Guides – (IV) Aims at developing the character of boys and girls to make them good citizens by inculcating a spirit of loyalty, patriotism, and thoughtfulness for others. (B) The National Service Scheme (NSS) – (I) Aims at involving college-level students in programmes of social service and national development. (C) Commonwealth Youth Programme – (II) Aimed at making the youth participate in the development processes of their respective countries. (D) The National Service Volunteer Scheme – (III) Provides opportunities for students to involve themselves, on a whole-time basis for one or two years, in programmes of national development. |
| 27 | Q27. You are a student of resource management. Which of the following career options can you take up after completion of your degree in Human Resource Management? (A) Recruitment Consulting (B) Career Counselling (C) Dietary Counselling (D) HR Consulting
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B) and (C) only 2. (A), (C) and (D) only 3. (A), (B), and (D) only 4. (B), (C) and (D) only | The correct answer is Option 3. (A), (B), and (D) only A degree in Human Resource Management (HRM) equips students with skills related to managing people, improving workplace productivity, and developing organizational policies. Hence, suitable career options after completing HRM include: (A) Recruitment Consulting: Involves helping organizations find and hire suitable employees for specific roles. (B) Career Counselling: Involves guiding individuals in making informed career choices, aligning their skills and interests with job opportunities. (D) HR Consulting: Involves advising companies on HR policies, performance management, employee engagement, and organizational development. (C) Dietary Counselling is related to nutrition and dietetics, not human resource management, hence it is not applicable here. |
| 28 | Q28. Which among the following is an example of 'entertainment event'? 1. Celebrity night 2. Graduation day 3. MICE 4. Birthday party | The correct answer is Option 1. Celebrity night An entertainment event is organized primarily to provide fun, recreation, and enjoyment to the audience. These events often feature music, dance, performances, or celebrity appearances and are meant to entertain the attendees. • Celebrity night involves inviting popular personalities such as actors, singers, or performers to entertain the audience — hence, it is a classic example of an entertainment event. • Graduation day is a ceremonial/academic event. • MICE (Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, Exhibitions) refers to business or corporate events. • Birthday party is a personal or social event, not a professional entertainment event. |
| 29 | Q29. According to WHO, 'disability' is an umbrella term that covers impairments, limitations in activity and restrictions in participation. If a child faces difficulty in reading, writing and solving arithmetic problems, which of the following type of disability/impairment is he/she suffering from? 1. Cerebral Palsy 2. Learning disability 3. Hearing impairment 4. Autism | The correct answer is Option 2. Learning disability According to the World Health Organization (WHO), disability includes impairments, activity limitations, and participation restrictions that affect a person’s ability to perform daily tasks effectively. When a child has difficulty in reading, writing, or solving arithmetic problems, it points to a Learning Disability (LD) — a neurological condition that affects the brain’s ability to receive, process, and respond to information. • Reading difficulties → Dyslexia • Writing difficulties → Dysgraphia • Mathematical difficulties → Dyscalculia Other options: • Cerebral Palsy affects movement and muscle coordination. • Hearing impairment affects the ability to hear sounds. • Autism affects social interaction, communication, and behavior, not basic academic learning skills. |
| 30 | Q30. Children under the age of 18, found guilty in terms of violation of law are referred to as __________________ . Fill in the blank with suitable option. 1. Orphan 2. Peer 3. Scouts 4. Juvenile | The correct answer is Option 4. Juvenile According to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015, a juvenile or child in conflict with law refers to a person below 18 years of age who has been found guilty of violating the law. • Such children are not treated as adult criminals but are given rehabilitative and reformative care to help them reintegrate into society. • The focus is on education, counselling, and correction, rather than punishment. Other options: • Orphan: A child who has lost both parents. • Peer: A person of the same age group. • Scouts: Members of a youth organization engaged in social and outdoor activities. |
| 31 | Q31. Which among the following is an example of a multimedia campaign? 1. Project Village Chhatera 2. Red Ribbon Express
3. SARI 4. SEWA | The correct answer is Option 2. Red Ribbon Express The Red Ribbon Express is a classic example of a multimedia campaign launched by the Government of India to spread awareness about HIV/AIDS and promote health, hygiene, and stigma reduction. It used multiple modes of communication such as: • Audio-visual media (films, radio, TV spots) • Printed materials (posters, pamphlets, booklets) • Interpersonal communication (workshops, street plays, and exhibitions) The campaign combined mass media and interpersonal communication to effectively reach rural and urban populations across the country. Other options: • Project Village Chhatera – A rural development project. • SARI (Sustainable Access in Rural India) – Focused on digital inclusion. • SEWA (Self Employed Women’s Association) – A trade union for women workers. |
| 32 | Q32. Arrange the steps involved in providing special education to teach children with SEN in the correct order of their implementation. (A) Develop Individualized Education Programme (IEP) (B) Continuous access and use of support services (C) Assessment of the child's level in different areas of development & learning (D) Regular evaluation of IEP to check the child's progress Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (C), (D) 2. (A), (C), (B), (D) 3. (C), (A), (D), (B) 4. (C), (B), (D), (A) | The correct answer is Option 3. (C), (A), (D), (B) Providing Special Education to children with Special Educational Needs (SEN) involves a systematic and individualized approach. The correct sequence of implementation is as follows: 1. (C) Assessment of the child's level in different areas of development & learning o The process begins with assessing the child’s strengths, weaknesses, and specific learning needs. 2. (A) Develop Individualized Education Programme (IEP) o Based on the assessment, a personalized education plan (IEP) is created to outline goals, strategies, and teaching methods suitable for the child. 3. (D) Regular evaluation of IEP to check the child's progress o Continuous evaluation helps determine whether the child is progressing as expected and if the IEP needs modification. 4. (B) Continuous access and use of support services o The child should consistently receive necessary support services (speech therapy, occupational therapy, counseling, etc.) to aid overall development. |
| 33 | Q33. Which of the following are characteristic features of Internal Communication in a corporate organization? (A) Interaction between employer and employee of same organisation (B) Interaction between two employees of same department and same organisation (C) Interaction among several employees of same organization but different departments (D) Interaction between employees of different organizations Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B) and (D) only 2. (A), (C) and (D) only 3. (B), (C) and (D) only 4. (A), (B) and (C) only | The correct answer is Option 4. (A), (B) and (C) only Internal communication means the exchange of information within an organization. It helps in coordination and smooth functioning among different levels of employees. • (A) Interaction between employer and employee of the same organization – Yes, it is internal. • (B) Interaction between two employees of the same department – Yes, it is internal. • (C) Interaction among employees of the same organization but different departments – Yes, it is internal. • (D) Interaction between employees of different organizations – ❌ This is external communication. |
| 34 | Q34. Which among the following is an example of Broadcast Media? 1. Television program 2. Government mobile service provider 3. Fashion magazine 4. Internet | The correct answer is Option 1. Television program Broadcast media refers to communication channels that transmit information to a large audience simultaneously through electronic means. This includes mediums like television and radio, where content is broadcast over airwaves or digital signals. • Television program is a prime example of broadcast media as it is transmitted to the public through TV networks and reaches a mass audience at the same time. • Fashion magazine represents print media. • Internet is a form of digital or new media. • Government mobile service provider is not a media type. |
| 35 | Q35. Who among the following is responsible for planning, organising and controlling the kitchen operations? 1. Kitchen Steward 2. Chef-de-parties 3. Deputy Chef 4. Chef-de-cuisine | The correct answer is Option 4. Chef-de-cuisine The Chef-de-cuisine, also known as the Executive Chef or Head Chef, is responsible for the overall management of kitchen operations. This includes: • Planning the menu and deciding recipes. • Organising the workflow and assigning duties to various chefs and kitchen staff. • Controlling the quality of food, managing inventory, and ensuring hygiene and safety standards are met. • Supervising all sections of the kitchen (sauces, soups, baking, cold kitchen, etc.) to ensure smooth operations. |
| 36 | Q36. The science of relationship between man, machinery and equipment that human beings use and the work environment is known as _____________ . 1. Agronomics 2. Economics 3. Ergonomics 4. Mechanical Science | The correct answer is Option 3. Ergonomics Ergonomics is the scientific study of the relationship between humans, machines, equipment, and the work environment. It focuses on designing tools, systems, and workplaces that fit human physical and cognitive abilities to enhance efficiency, safety, and comfort. • The main goal of ergonomics is to reduce strain, fatigue, and injury while improving productivity and overall work quality. • It ensures that work environments are human-centered, leading to better performance and satisfaction. |
| 37 | Q37. Arrange the steps involved in Media Planning and Designing Production Process in correct sequence: (A) Media Buying (B) Designing strategies for selection of suitable media, channel (C) Media Audience (D) Media designing, development of communication model and material (E) Writing Media Schedule or Blue Print Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) 2. (D), (C), (E), (B), (A)
3. (B), (E), (A), (D), (C) 4. (C), (B), (E), (D), (A) | The correct answer is Option 4. (C), (B), (D), (E), (A) The Media Planning and Designing Production Process involves a series of logical steps to ensure that the message reaches the target audience effectively and efficiently. Here’s the correct sequence: 1. (C) Media Audience – The first step is identifying and analyzing the target audience to understand their preferences, media habits, and communication needs. 2. (B) Designing strategies for selection of suitable media, channel – After knowing the audience, strategies are framed to select the most suitable media or communication channels. 3. (D) Media designing, development of communication model and material – The communication content and materials are then developed and designed to align with the strategy. 4. (E) Writing Media Schedule or Blue Print – Next, a media schedule or blueprint is prepared outlining when and where the messages will appear. 5. (A) Media Buying – Finally, the actual purchase of media space or time is done for executing the plan. |
| 38 | Q38. Which 'Philosopher' practised seven principles including 'Tell the truth', Manage for tomorrow' of Public Relations management? 1. Jean Piaget 2. Lev Vygotsky 3. Arthur W. Page 4. Sigmund Freud | The correct answer is Option 3. Arthur W. Page Arthur W. Page is regarded as one of the pioneers of Public Relations (PR) management. He emphasized that ethical communication and corporate integrity are fundamental to maintaining public trust. He developed the Seven Principles of Public Relations Management, which include: 1. Tell the truth 2. Prove it with action 3. Listen to the customer 4. Manage for tomorrow 5. Conduct public relations as if the whole company depends on it 6. Realize a company’s true character is expressed by its people 7. Remain calm, patient, and good-humored These principles continue to guide modern public relations and corporate communication practices. |
| 39 | Q39. Match List-I with List-II List-I List-II SDG Number Name of SDG (A) SDG 3 (I) Reduce inequality within as well as as among countries (B) SDG 5 (II) Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns (C) SDG 10 (III) Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages (D) SDG 12 (IV) Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns
Choose the correct answer from the options given below: 1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV) 2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV) 3. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) 4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) | The correct answer is Option 4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II) Each Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) has a specific focus area under the United Nations 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development: • (A) SDG 3 – Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all ages → (III) • (B) SDG 5 – Achieve gender equality and empower all women and girls → (IV) • (C) SDG 10 – Reduce inequality within and among countries → (I) • (D) SDG 12 – Ensure sustainable consumption and production patterns → (II) |
| 40 | Q40. Tucks in a yoke and knife pleats in a skirt create which of the following form of rhythm effect in a dress? 1. Repetition 2. Cordation
3. Parallelism 4. Radiation Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows: The government is making considerable efforts to solve the nutritional problems. POSHAN Abhiyaan was launched in Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan in March 2018. Its large component involves gradual scaling-up of interventions to all districts in the country by 2022. It targets stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent girls) and low birth rate. The Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) is implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan in 315 districts in the first year, 235 districts in the second year and remaining districts will be covered in the third year. Through robust multi ministerial convergence mechanism and other components POSHAN Abhiyaan strives to create the synergy. | The correct answer is Option 1. Repetition In fashion design, rhythm refers to the visual flow or movement created by repeating design elements in a garment. • Tucks in a yoke and knife pleats in a skirt are both examples of regularly repeated folds or lines in fabric. • This repetition of similar shapes, lines, or patterns creates a Repetition rhythm, which provides a sense of harmony, continuity, and structured design. Other options: • Coordination – Refers to the harmony between various elements but not rhythm specifically. • Parallelism – Refers to lines or folds running parallel but does not necessarily imply rhythmic repetition. • Radiation – Occurs when lines or designs spread outward from a central point. |
| 41 | Q41. The POSHAN Abhiyan is being implemented by which Ministry? 1. Ministry of AYUSH 2. Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) 3. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW) 4. Ministry of Food Processing Industries | The correct answer is Option 2. Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD) According to the passage, the POSHAN Abhiyaan is being implemented by the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). The programme aims to address issues like stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia, and low birth weight through a multi-ministerial convergence mechanism. |
| 42 | Q42. Integrated Child Development Services covers vulnerable children in the age group of _____________ years? 1. 0-6 2. 3-6 3. 0-3 4. 2-7 | The correct answer is Option 1. 0–6 years The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme is one of India’s flagship programmes aimed at improving the health, nutrition, and development of vulnerable children below six years of age. It also provides support to pregnant women and lactating mothers through services such as supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-ups, and preschool education. |
| 43 | Q43. What is the full-form of POSHAN? 1. PM's Overarching Service for Holistic Nutrition 2. PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment 3. PM's Old Scheme for Healthy Nutrition 4. PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition | The correct answer is Option 4. PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition The full form of POSHAN is “Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition.” It was launched as part of the POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission) in 2018 to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers through a targeted and convergent approach. |
| 44 | Q44. Which of the following is NOT a direct short term intervention under the POSHAN Abhiyan? 1. Fortification of essential foods (salt fortified with iodine) 2. Production and popularisation of low cost nutritious foods from indigenous and locally available raw material 3. Ensuring food security i.e., improving availability of food 4. Control of micronutrient deficiencies among vulnerable groups | The correct answer is Option 3. Ensuring food security i.e., improving availability of food Under the POSHAN Abhiyaan, the focus is primarily on direct short-term nutritional interventions such as: • Fortification of essential foods (e.g., iodized salt, fortified flour, etc.) • Production and promotion of low-cost nutritious foods from locally available ingredients • Control of micronutrient deficiencies among vulnerable groups, including children and women However, ensuring food security - that is, improving the overall availability and access to food - is a long-term and indirect intervention. It goes beyond the scope of POSHAN Abhiyaan’s direct nutrition-specific measures. |
| 45 | Q45. The POSHAN Abhiyaan was first launched in which state? 1. Gujarat 2. Rajasthan 3. Haryana 4. Punjab Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows: In the counselling process, the professional counsellor may use different techniques. In directive or counsellor-centred counselling, the counsellor plays a major role and does all that is possible to get the counsellee to make decisions in keeping with the diagnosis of the problem. In non-directive or permissive or client-centred counselling, the counsellor's role is comparatively passive. The counsellee takes an active part in the process of therapy. The person seeking help is encouraged to gain insight into the problem with the help of the counsellor. The counsellee takes the final decisions. Thus, this counselling process turns out to be a growth experience for the person. In eclectic counselling, counsellors who advocate using this type of counselling are of the view that directed or non-directed counselling are two ends of continuum. And counsellors should incorporate suitable techniques from both the types of counselling mentioned above as and when required, depending on the situation, the problem and the temperament of the client. | The correct answer is Option 2. Rajasthan The POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission) was launched in Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan, on 8th March 2018 by the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India. The mission aims to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant women, and lactating mothers through coordinated efforts among various ministries and departments. |
| 46 | Q46. In which type of professional counselling, counsellors plays the major role? 1. Eclectic counselling 2. Directive counselling
3. Permissive counselling 4. Non-airective counselling | The correct answer is Option 2. Directive counselling In directive counselling (also called counsellor-centred counselling), the counsellor plays the major role in guiding the counsellee. The counsellor analyses the problem, provides advice, and helps the individual make decisions based on the diagnosis. Here, the counsellee’s participation is limited, while the counsellor actively directs the entire counselling process. |
| 47 | Q47. In which type of counselling technique, the counsellee takes the final decision? 1. Permissive counselling 2. Informal counselling 3. Directive counselling 4. Eclectic counselling | The correct answer is Option 1. Permissive counselling In permissive counselling, also known as non-directive or client-centred counselling, the counsellee (client) plays the active role in the process. The counsellor remains passive, offering support and guidance while helping the client understand their own problems. The final decision is taken by the counsellee, making it a self-growth experience that encourages independence and personal insight. |
| 48 | Q48. In _____________ type of counselling, the person seeking help is encouraged to gain insight into the problem. Fill in the blank with the appropriate option. 1. Non-specialist 2. Eclectic 3. Non-directive 4. Counsellor-centred | The correct answer is Option 3. Non-directive In non-directive counselling (also called permissive or client-centred counselling), the person seeking help (counsellee) is encouraged to gain insight into their own problems. The counsellor provides a supportive and understanding environment, helping the counsellee explore their feelings and thoughts freely. The aim is to help the individual develop self-understanding and make independent decisions. |
| 49 | Q49. Which type of counselling recommends the use of different counselling methods based on the situation, the problem and the temperament of the client? 1. Counsellor-centred counselling 2. Client-centred counselling 3. Eclectic counselling 4. Informal counselling | The correct answer is Option 3. Eclectic counselling In eclectic counselling, the counsellor combines techniques from both directive (counsellor-centred) and non-directive (client-centred) counselling. The approach is flexible and depends on the situation, nature of the problem, and temperament of the client. The counsellor chooses the most suitable method or technique as per the needs of the individual to ensure effective results. |
| 50 | Q50. In which technique of counselling, the counsellors are of the view that directed or non-directed counseling are two ends of continuum? 1. Permissive counselling 2. Non-directive counselling 3. Directive counselling 4. Eclectic counselling | The correct answer is Option 4. Eclectic counselling In eclectic counselling, counsellors believe that directive and non-directive counselling are two ends of a continuum. This means that counselling should not be strictly one type; instead, it should blend both approaches depending on the client’s needs and the specific situation. The counsellor flexibly selects techniques from either approach to help the counsellee most effectively. |