CUET UG 2025 Home Science Previous Year Solved Paper

CUET UG 2025 Home Science previous year paper with easy solutions. This page keeps the original questions and presents student-friendly explanations in a clean table format for quick revision, practice, and topic-wise mock preparation.

Subject: Home Science
Year: 2025
Questions extracted: 50
Source format: previous year paper PDF with solution section

Student-Friendly Solutions Table

Each question is shown with its original wording from the source paper and an easier explanation designed for quick understanding.

Q.No. Question Easy Solution
1Q1. Which of the following is a voluntary scheme of certification of
agricultural products (raw and processed) for safeguarding the health of
consumers?
1. AGMARK
2. FSSAI
3. ISI
4. CAC

The correct answer is Option 1. AGMARK
AGMARK is a voluntary certification scheme for agricultural products - both
raw and processed - in India. It ensures the quality and purity of agricultural
commodities and helps safeguard consumer health.
It is implemented under the Agricultural Produce (Grading and Marking)
Act, 1937, and is managed by the Directorate of Marketing and Inspection
(DMI), under the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.

2Q2. You are a trainer for implementation of Good Manufacturing Practices
(GMP) in a food manufacturing unit. Which of the following best describes
GMP?
1. Involves identification of hazards, assessment of chances of occurrence of
hazards during each step/stage in the food chain
2. Ensuring that processors take proactive steps to ensure that their
products are safe; enabling to minimise or eliminate contamination and
false labelling
3. Promote the development of standardisation and related activities in the
world
4. Establishing international standards to protect the health of the
consumers and facilitate food and agricultural trade

The correct answer is Option 2. Ensuring that processors take proactive
steps to ensure that their products are safe; enabling to minimise or
eliminate contamination and false labelling
Good Manufacturing Practices (GMP) are a set of systematic procedures and
guidelines that ensure food safety, quality, and hygiene during production,
processing, packaging, and storage.
They help manufacturers prevent contamination, adulteration, and
mislabelling by maintaining proper sanitation, equipment design, personnel
hygiene, and documentation.
GMP focuses on preventive action - ensuring that products are consistently
produced and controlled according to quality standards.

3Q3. Deriving satisfaction from work itself, signifies connotation of work as
__________________ .
1. a livelihood
2. a job
3. a career
4. a calling

Previous Years' Paper
Common University Entrance Test for UG Programmes
Entrance Exam, 2025
CUET-UG - Home Science
(After the list of questions, the solution will Start.)

The correct answer is Option 4. a calling
When a person derives satisfaction and fulfillment from the work itself,
rather than external rewards like money or status, it reflects the idea of
work as a calling.

A calling is a deep-seated motivation or passion for one’s work, where the
individual feels that their job has a purpose and meaning beyond personal
gain.
This differs from:
• Livelihood: Work done for survival or income.
• Job: Work done primarily for monetary compensation.
• Career: Long-term professional growth or achievement.

4Q4. Which of the following Article of the Constitution of India guarantees
equality of opportunity for all citizens in matters relating to employment and
appointment to any office under the State?
1. Article 16 (1)
2. Article 22 (1)
3. Article 16 (4)
4. Article 20 (1)

The correct answer is Option 1. Article 16 (1)
Article 16(1) of the Constitution of India guarantees equality of opportunity
for all citizens in matters related to employment or appointment to any
office under the State.
It ensures that no citizen is discriminated against in public employment on
grounds of religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, or residence.
This article is a part of the Fundamental Rights (Articles 12–35) under Part
III of the Constitution and upholds the principle of equal opportunity in
public services.

5Q5. Nutritional assessment of an individual involves obtaining information
on which of the following parameters?
(A) Anthropometric measurements
(B) Dietary assessment
(C) Clinical examination
(D) Biochemical laboratory analysis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

The correct answer is Option 3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Nutritional assessment is a comprehensive evaluation of an individual's
nutritional status. It involves collecting information from multiple
parameters to identify deficiencies or imbalances. The main components
are:
• (A) Anthropometric measurements: Includes measurements like
height, weight, BMI, mid-upper arm circumference, and skinfold
thickness to assess body composition and growth patterns.
• (B) Dietary assessment: Evaluates food intake through methods like
24-hour recall, food frequency questionnaires, or diet history to
determine nutrient adequacy.

• (C) Clinical examination: Detects visible signs and symptoms of
nutrient deficiencies such as pallor (anaemia), oedema (protein
deficiency), or skin lesions (vitamin deficiency).
• (D) Biochemical laboratory analysis: Involves blood, urine, or tissue
tests to measure levels of nutrients, metabolites, or enzymes for
accurate diagnosis of nutritional status.

6Q6. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
Examples
Type of processed foods
(A) Pickles, jam, marmalade, squashes
(I) Functional foods
(B) Probiotics
(II) Formulated foods
(C) Frozen peas and frozen vegetables,
canned fruits and vegetables
(III) Manufactured foods
(D) Bread, biscuits, ice cream
(IV) Preserved foods




Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
2. (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
3. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)

The correct answer is Option 2. (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (I), (D) – (IV)
Let’s match each example with its correct type of processed food:
• (A) Pickles, jam, marmalade, squashes → (III) Manufactured foods
These are manufactured products prepared by processing raw
ingredients through heating, boiling, and mixing.
• (B) Probiotics → (II) Formulated foods
Probiotics are formulated foods that contain beneficial
microorganisms to promote gut health and improve digestion.
• (C) Frozen peas and frozen vegetables, canned fruits and vegetables →
(I) Functional foods
These are functional foods because they retain nutrients and provide
additional health benefits when consumed.
• (D) Bread, biscuits, ice cream → (IV) Preserved foods
These are preserved foods since methods like freezing, baking, and
drying help in extending shelf life.

7Q7. Which of the following are examples of Complementary Colour Scheme?
(A) Blue & Orange
(B) Red & Green
(C) Green & Yellow
(D) Purple & Yellow
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B) and (C) only
3. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

The correct answer is Option 1. (A), (B) and (D) only
A complementary colour scheme consists of two colours that are opposite
each other on the colour wheel. When placed together, these colours create
strong contrast and vibrant visuals.

Examples of complementary colour pairs include:
• (A) Blue & Orange → Opposite on the colour wheel.
• (B) Red & Green → Classic complementary pair.
• (D) Purple & Yellow → Direct opposites, offering high contrast.
(C) Green & Yellow are analogous colours, meaning they are next to each
other on the colour wheel, not complementary.

8Q8. Arrange stages of the Fashion Cycle in correct sequence:
(A) Decline in Popularity
(B) Peak of Popularity
(C) Introduction of a Style
(D) Obsolescence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (C) (B), (A), (D)
3. (B), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

The correct answer is Option 2. (C), (B), (A), (D)
The fashion cycle represents the life span of a fashion trend - from its
introduction to its decline and eventual disappearance. The stages occur in
the following sequence:
1. (C) Introduction of a Style: A new style is introduced, usually by
designers or fashion innovators. It attracts attention but is adopted
by a limited group initially.
2. (B) Peak of Popularity:
The style gains mass acceptance and becomes a trend. Demand is
high, and it is widely available.
3. (A) Decline in Popularity: As people move to newer trends, interest
and demand for the style begin to decrease.
4. (D) Obsolescence: The style becomes outdated and is no longer worn
by the public.

9Q9. According to the Quality of Work Life (QWL) approach, the employees
are considered to be __________________ by the organizations. Fill in the blank
with suitable option.
1. Liability
2. Assets
3. Debts
4. Burden

The correct answer is Option 2. Assets
According to the Quality of Work Life (QWL) approach, employees are
viewed as valuable assets of an organization - not merely resources or
liabilities. This perspective emphasizes improving working conditions,
ensuring job satisfaction, and promoting employee well-being.

Organizations that adopt QWL focus on:
• Employee motivation and engagement
• Work-life balance
• Safe and healthy work environments
• Opportunities for growth and development
By treating employees as assets, organizations recognize their contribution
to productivity, innovation, and long-term success.

10Q10. What are rules or standards governing the conduct of a person or the
members of a profession known as?
1. Values
2. Dignity of Labour
3. Ethics
4. Assumptions

The correct answer is Option 3. Ethics
Ethics refers to the set of rules, principles, or standards that govern the
behavior and conduct of individuals, especially in a professional or
organizational context. It helps determine what is right or wrong, fair or
unfair, and guides decision-making and actions.
In a professional setting, ethics ensure integrity, honesty, responsibility, and
respect in dealings with others - maintaining the reputation and
trustworthiness of the profession.

11Q11. Which of the following is NOT a benefit of ergonomics?
1. Increases productivity
2. Diminishes morale of workers
3. Decreases absenteeism
4. Reduces mistakes and need to do the work again

The correct answer is Option 2. Diminishes morale of workers
Ergonomics is the scientific study of designing and arranging workplaces,
products, and systems so that they fit the people who use them. Its goal is
to improve efficiency, safety, and comfort at work.
The benefits of ergonomics include:
• Increases productivity: Workers perform better when comfortable
and less fatigued.
• Decreases absenteeism: A well-designed workspace reduces strain
and injury, leading to fewer sick days.
• Reduces mistakes: Improved comfort and better posture help workers
stay focused and reduce errors.

However, diminishing morale of workers is not a benefit - in fact,
ergonomics enhances morale by improving working conditions.

12Q12. Which of the following fashion designer made use of tents and wagon
covers to make cargo pants?
1. Levi Strauss
2. Isaac Singer
3. Louis Vuitton
4. Coco Chanel

The correct answer is Option 1. Levi Strauss
Levi Strauss, a German-American fashion entrepreneur, is best known as
the founder of Levi Strauss & Co. and the creator of denim jeans.
During the mid-19th century, he used durable canvas materials such as tents
and wagon covers to make sturdy work pants for miners and laborers
during the California Gold Rush.
These early designs later evolved into cargo pants and denim jeans, known
for their strength and practicality. Levi Strauss’s innovation laid the
foundation for modern workwear and casual fashion.

13Q13. Which of the following is a type of 'weaving defect'?
1. Slub
2. Colour run
3. Chafe

4. Broken end

The correct answer is Option 4. Broken end
A weaving defect occurs during the weaving process - when the warp and
weft threads are interlaced to form fabric. Such defects can affect the
appearance, strength, and quality of the fabric.
Common weaving defects include:
• Broken end: A warp yarn breaks during weaving, leaving a missing
thread line in the fabric — a classic weaving defect.
• Broken pick: A weft yarn break, leading to gaps across the fabric.
• Floats, snarls, and reed marks — all related to weaving irregularities.
On the other hand:
• Slub → is a spinning defect (uneven thickness in yarn).
• Colour run → is a dyeing defect.
• Chafe → is a finishing or surface defect caused by friction.

14Q14. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
Type of stain
Chemical used for stain removal
(A) Blood
(I) Methylated spirit
(B) Tea/Coffee
(II) Javelle water
(C) Lipstick
(III) Ammonia
(D) Curry
(IV) Borax

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
2. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
3. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

The correct answer is Option 2. (A) – (II), (B) – (I), (C) – (IV), (D) – (III)
Each type of stain requires a specific chemical for effective removal based
on its composition.
Here’s the correct matching:
• (A) Blood – (II) Javelle water
Javelle water (a chlorine-based bleaching agent) is effective for
removing protein-based stains like blood after rinsing with cold
water.
• (B) Tea/Coffee – (I) Methylated spirit
Methylated spirit helps dissolve tannin-based stains such as tea or
coffee from fabric.
• (C) Lipstick – (IV) Borax
Lipstick stains contain oils and waxes that can be effectively removed
with borax solution.
• (D) Curry – (III) Ammonia
Ammonia helps neutralize and remove turmeric and oil-based stains
found in curry.

15Q15. You are a catering manager. Arrange the following steps in food service
management in the order of implementation.
(A) Reporting
(B) Staffing
(C) Planning
(D) Directing and Delegating
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
3. (C), (B), (D), (A)
4. (C) (D), (B), (A)

The correct answer is Option 3. (C), (B), (D), (A)
In food service management, the process follows the general management
sequence to ensure efficient operation and coordination.
Here’s the logical order of implementation:
1. (C) Planning – The first step involves setting objectives, policies, and
procedures for food service, such as menu planning, budgeting, and
resource allocation.
2. (B) Staffing – After planning, the next step is recruiting, training, and
organizing staff to execute the plan efficiently.

3. (D) Directing and Delegating – This step involves guiding and
motivating staff, assigning tasks, and ensuring smooth operations in
food production and service.
4. (A) Reporting – Finally, reporting evaluates performance and
provides feedback to improve efficiency and effectiveness in future
operations.

16Q16. You are a textile conservator in a museum. Which among the following
methods would you choose to minimize the damage caused to a textile
artifact stored in your museum?

1. Expose the objects to light of high intensity
2. Minimize the intensity of light falling upon the object
3. Expose objects to light for longer period of time
4. Introduce photo-chemically active radiations from the light

The correct answer is Option 2. Minimize the intensity of light falling upon
the object
As a textile conservator, protecting delicate fabrics from deterioration is
crucial. Light - especially ultraviolet (UV) and visible high-intensity light -
can cause fading, discoloration, and weakening of fibers over time.
To minimize damage:
• The intensity of light should be kept as low as possible, generally
below 50 lux for sensitive materials like textiles and paper.
• UV radiation should be filtered out using UV filters on windows and
light sources.
• Exposure time should be minimized — display textiles only for
limited durations.
On the other hand:
• High-intensity light (Option 1) and longer exposure (Option 3)
accelerate fading.
• Photo-chemically active radiations (Option 4) increase deterioration
by breaking molecular bonds in dyes and fibers.

17Q17. The principle of all washing machines is to keep the fabric in movement
in the washing solution to carry away the dirt.
Which among the following method is used for washing garments in a front
load washing machine?
1. Spinning
2. Agitation
3. Tumbling
4. Pulsation

The correct answer is Option 3. Tumbling
In a front-load washing machine, the tumbling method is used to wash
garments effectively.

Here’s how it works:
• The drum of the washing machine rotates horizontally, lifting clothes
up and then dropping them into the water repeatedly.
• This tumbling action causes gentle friction between fabrics, helping to
dislodge dirt and stains without causing fabric damage.
• The motion ensures even distribution of detergent and thorough
cleaning while using less water and energy compared to top-load
machines.
Other methods:
• Spinning (Option 1): Used to remove excess water at the end of the
wash cycle, not for washing.
• Agitation (Option 2): Found in top-load machines with a central
agitator that moves clothes back and forth.
• Pulsation (Option 4): Used in impeller-type top-load washers, where a
rotating disc or plate moves water to clean clothes.

18Q18. Your friend is a fashion designer. He/she is planning to launch his/her
own fashion business to meet the demands of female wage earners in the age
group of 25-45 years. According to you, which type of market segmentation
has he/she used to define the target market?
1. Demographic Segmentation
2. Geographic Segmentation
3. Psychographic Segmentation
4. Behavioural Segmentation

The correct answer is Option 1. Demographic Segmentation
In marketing, segmentation involves dividing the market into smaller
groups of consumers based on shared characteristics.
Here, your friend — the fashion designer — is defining the target market
based on:
• Gender → Female
• Age group → 25–45 years
• Occupation/Income group → Wage earners
These factors are all demographic variables, which include age, gender,
income, education, and occupation. This type of segmentation helps design
products and marketing strategies suited to a specific group’s needs and
purchasing power.
Other types (for clarity):
• Geographic segmentation: Based on location (city, region, climate).

• Psychographic segmentation: Based on lifestyle, interests, personality,
or values.
• Behavioural segmentation: Based on buying behaviour, brand loyalty,
or product usage.

19Q19. Which among the following is a 'Principle of Design'?
1. Texture
2. Colour
3. Form/Shape
4. Balance

The correct answer is Option 4. Balance
In design, there are two main concepts:
• Elements of Design – These are the basic components used to create a
design, such as line, shape/form, colour, texture, and space.
• Principles of Design – These are the rules that guide how the
elements are arranged to create harmony and visual appeal.
Balance is one of the Principles of Design, which ensures that visual weight
is evenly distributed in a composition. It can be:
• Symmetrical balance – both sides are equal and mirror each other.
• Asymmetrical balance – both sides are different but still visually
balanced.
• Radial balance – elements are arranged around a central point.
On the other hand:
• Texture, Colour, and Form/Shape are Elements of Design, not
principles.

20Q20. Which among the following is a natural factor responsible for the
deterioration of artifacts in a museum?
1. Bad storage
2. Pests

3. Accidents
4. Fire

The correct answer is Option 2. Pests
In a museum, artifacts can deteriorate due to various factors, which are
generally categorized as natural or man-made.
• Natural factors include environmental and biological causes that
occur naturally and are not directly caused by human negligence.
Among these, pests such as insects, rodents, and microorganisms
(like fungi or bacteria) are a major natural cause of deterioration.

o They feed on organic materials like textiles, paper, wood, and
leather.
o This can result in holes, stains, weakening of fibers, and even
complete destruction of delicate artifacts.
• The other options — bad storage, accidents, and fire — are man-made
factors, as they usually occur due to poor handling, negligence, or lack
of preventive measures.

21Q21. Identify the essential features of Development Communication.
(A) It focusses on success stories of people who have adopted new
technologies, tried new methods and helped the society
(B) It is oriented to socio-economic development and happiness of the
people and community at large
(C) It aims at giving information and educating the community
(D) It combines suitable mass media and interpersonal communication
channels for greater impact
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
3. (B), (C) and (D) only
4. (A), (C) and (D) only

The correct answer is Option 2. (A), (B), (C) and (D)
Development Communication refers to the use of communication to
promote social and economic development. It helps people understand,
accept, and adopt new ideas, technologies, and behaviors for improving
their quality of life.
All the given statements correctly describe its essential features:
• (A) It highlights success stories of individuals or groups who have
brought positive change — inspiring others to follow their example.
• (B) It is people-oriented, focusing on the overall socio-economic
development and well-being of communities.
• (C) It educates and informs communities about new methods,
technologies, and practices that contribute to progress.
• (D) It uses a mix of mass media (radio, TV, newspapers) and
interpersonal communication (meetings, workshops) to ensure
messages reach and influence people effectively.

22Q22. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
Hospitality Establishment
Services
(A) Hotel
(II) Offers lodging, meals, and other
services to its guests
(B) Furnished camps
(IV) Provide hospitality to people who go
hiking, undertake adventure sports, etc.
(C) Motel
(I) Provides parking facility near the
room or a room door that opens out onto
the parking lot
(D) Resort
(III) Offers a broad range of amenities,
sports facilities, and leisure activities for
ensuring a total vacation experience



Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
2. (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (III), (D) – (I)
3. (A) – (I), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
4. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

The correct answer is Option 2. (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
This question matches different hospitality establishments with their
respective services based on their main functions and the type of guests
they cater to.
(A) Hotel – (II) Offers lodging, meals, and other services to its guests.

Hotels are commercial establishments that provide accommodation, food,
and other guest services such as room service, housekeeping, and concierge
facilities.
(B) Furnished Camps – (IV) Provide hospitality to people who go hiking,
undertake adventure sports, etc.
Furnished camps are designed for tourists and adventure seekers,
providing comfortable temporary accommodation in natural surroundings
with basic amenities.
(C) Motel – (I) Provides parking facility near the room or a room door that
opens out onto the parking lot.
Motels are meant for travelers, especially those traveling by road, offering
easy access to parking spaces directly connected to rooms for convenience.
(D) Resort – (III) Offers a broad range of amenities, sports facilities, and
leisure activities for ensuring a total vacation experience.
Resorts are destinations for recreation and relaxation, providing luxurious
facilities, entertainment options, and activities for a complete vacation
experience.

23Q23. Arrange the stages of 'Guest Cycle' in correct order of their occurrence:
(A) Departure
(B) Occupancy
(D) Arrival
(D) Pre-arrival
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (D), (C), (B), (A)
3. (D), (A), (C), (B)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

The correct answer is Option 2. (D), (C), (B), (A)
The Guest Cycle in the hospitality industry represents the different stages a
guest goes through during their interaction with a hotel—from planning
their stay to checking out.
The stages occur in the following sequence:
(D) Pre-arrival: This is the planning and reservation stage where the guest
makes inquiries, books rooms, and receives confirmation.
(C) Arrival: The guest physically arrives at the hotel, checks in, and
completes registration formalities.
(B) Occupancy: During this stage, the guest stays in the hotel, avails
services, and enjoys the facilities provided.
(A) Departure: The final stage where the guest settles bills, checks out, and
leaves the hotel premises.

24Q24. Identify the name given to an institutional setting that is particularly
designed for the care of infants and young children in the absence of home
care.
1. Observation Homes
2. Special Homes
3. Children's Homes
4. Crèche

The correct answer is Option 4. Crèche
A Crèche is an institutional setup specifically designed for the care of infants
and young children in the absence of home care, especially when parents or
guardians are at work.
It provides a safe, nurturing environment where trained caregivers look
after children’s basic needs such as feeding, resting, and play.
Crèches play a vital role in supporting working parents, ensuring the
physical, emotional, and social development of young children in a secure
and stimulating atmosphere.

25Q25. Your mother has purchased gold earring for your sister. Which among
the following standardization mark would you advice your mother to check
on the product to ensure a quality purchase?
1. Ecomark
2. FSSAI
3. ISI Mark

4. Hallmark

The correct answer is Option 4. Hallmark
The Hallmark is a certification mark used to guarantee the purity and
fineness of gold and silver jewellery sold in India. It is issued by the Bureau
of Indian Standards (BIS).
The hallmark ensures that the jewellery meets the standards set for gold
purity, such as 24K, 22K, 18K, etc., and provides authenticity to the buyer.
The hallmark typically includes:
• BIS logo
• Purity/fineness mark
• Assaying and hallmarking centre’s identification mark
• Jeweller’s identification mark

26Q26. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
Youth Programme in India
Focus/Aim
(A) Scouts and Guides
(I) Aims at involving college level students
in programmes of social service and
national development
(B) The National Service
Scheme
(II) Aimed at making the youth participate
in the development processes of their
respective countries
(C) Commonwealth Youth
Programme
(III) Provides opportunities for students to
involve themselves, on a whole-time basis
for a short period of one or two years, in
programmes of national development
(D) The National Service
Volunteer Scheme
(IV) Aims at developing the character of
boys and girls to make them good citizens
by inculcating in them a spirit of loyalty,
patriotism and thoughtfulness for others

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
2. (A) - (I), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (IV)
3. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

The correct answer is Option 1. (A) – (IV), (B) – (I), (C) – (II), (D) – (III)
Let’s match each programme with its correct focus/aim:
(A) Scouts and Guides – (IV)

Aims at developing the character of boys and girls to make them good
citizens by inculcating a spirit of loyalty, patriotism, and thoughtfulness for
others.
(B) The National Service Scheme (NSS) – (I)
Aims at involving college-level students in programmes of social service and
national development.
(C) Commonwealth Youth Programme – (II)
Aimed at making the youth participate in the development processes of their
respective countries.
(D) The National Service Volunteer Scheme – (III)
Provides opportunities for students to involve themselves, on a whole-time
basis for one or two years, in programmes of national development.

27Q27. You are a student of resource management. Which of the following
career options can you take up after completion of your degree in Human
Resource Management?
(A) Recruitment Consulting
(B) Career Counselling
(C) Dietary Counselling
(D) HR Consulting

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (C) only
2. (A), (C) and (D) only
3. (A), (B), and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

The correct answer is Option 3. (A), (B), and (D) only
A degree in Human Resource Management (HRM) equips students with
skills related to managing people, improving workplace productivity, and
developing organizational policies. Hence, suitable career options after
completing HRM include:
(A) Recruitment Consulting: Involves helping organizations find and hire
suitable employees for specific roles.
(B) Career Counselling: Involves guiding individuals in making informed
career choices, aligning their skills and interests with job opportunities.
(D) HR Consulting: Involves advising companies on HR policies,
performance management, employee engagement, and organizational
development.
(C) Dietary Counselling is related to nutrition and dietetics, not human
resource management, hence it is not applicable here.

28Q28. Which among the following is an example of 'entertainment event'?
1. Celebrity night
2. Graduation day
3. MICE
4. Birthday party

The correct answer is Option 1. Celebrity night

An entertainment event is organized primarily to provide fun, recreation,
and enjoyment to the audience. These events often feature music, dance,
performances, or celebrity appearances and are meant to entertain the
attendees.
• Celebrity night involves inviting popular personalities such as actors,
singers, or performers to entertain the audience — hence, it is a
classic example of an entertainment event.
• Graduation day is a ceremonial/academic event.
• MICE (Meetings, Incentives, Conferences, Exhibitions) refers to
business or corporate events.
• Birthday party is a personal or social event, not a professional
entertainment event.

29Q29. According to WHO, 'disability' is an umbrella term that covers
impairments, limitations in activity and restrictions in participation. If a child
faces difficulty in reading, writing and solving arithmetic problems, which of
the following type of disability/impairment is he/she suffering from?
1. Cerebral Palsy
2. Learning disability
3. Hearing impairment
4. Autism

The correct answer is Option 2. Learning disability
According to the World Health Organization (WHO), disability includes
impairments, activity limitations, and participation restrictions that affect a
person’s ability to perform daily tasks effectively.
When a child has difficulty in reading, writing, or solving arithmetic
problems, it points to a Learning Disability (LD) — a neurological condition
that affects the brain’s ability to receive, process, and respond to
information.
• Reading difficulties → Dyslexia
• Writing difficulties → Dysgraphia
• Mathematical difficulties → Dyscalculia
Other options:
• Cerebral Palsy affects movement and muscle coordination.
• Hearing impairment affects the ability to hear sounds.
• Autism affects social interaction, communication, and behavior, not
basic academic learning skills.

30Q30. Children under the age of 18, found guilty in terms of violation of law
are referred to as __________________ . Fill in the blank with suitable option.
1. Orphan
2. Peer
3. Scouts
4. Juvenile

The correct answer is Option 4. Juvenile
According to the Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015,
a juvenile or child in conflict with law refers to a person below 18 years of
age who has been found guilty of violating the law.
• Such children are not treated as adult criminals but are given
rehabilitative and reformative care to help them reintegrate into
society.
• The focus is on education, counselling, and correction, rather than
punishment.
Other options:
• Orphan: A child who has lost both parents.
• Peer: A person of the same age group.
• Scouts: Members of a youth organization engaged in social and
outdoor activities.

31Q31. Which among the following is an example of a multimedia campaign?
1. Project Village Chhatera
2. Red Ribbon Express


3. SARI
4. SEWA

The correct answer is Option 2. Red Ribbon Express
The Red Ribbon Express is a classic example of a multimedia campaign
launched by the Government of India to spread awareness about HIV/AIDS
and promote health, hygiene, and stigma reduction.
It used multiple modes of communication such as:
• Audio-visual media (films, radio, TV spots)
• Printed materials (posters, pamphlets, booklets)
• Interpersonal communication (workshops, street plays, and
exhibitions)
The campaign combined mass media and interpersonal communication to
effectively reach rural and urban populations across the country.

Other options:
• Project Village Chhatera – A rural development project.
• SARI (Sustainable Access in Rural India) – Focused on digital
inclusion.
• SEWA (Self Employed Women’s Association) – A trade union for
women workers.

32Q32. Arrange the steps involved in providing special education to teach
children with SEN in the correct order of their implementation.
(A) Develop Individualized Education Programme (IEP)
(B) Continuous access and use of support services
(C) Assessment of the child's level in different areas of development &
learning
(D) Regular evaluation of IEP to check the child's progress
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (A), (C), (B), (D)
3. (C), (A), (D), (B)
4. (C), (B), (D), (A)

The correct answer is Option 3. (C), (A), (D), (B)
Providing Special Education to children with Special Educational Needs
(SEN) involves a systematic and individualized approach. The correct
sequence of implementation is as follows:
1. (C) Assessment of the child's level in different areas of development &
learning
o The process begins with assessing the child’s strengths,
weaknesses, and specific learning needs.
2. (A) Develop Individualized Education Programme (IEP)
o Based on the assessment, a personalized education plan (IEP)
is created to outline goals, strategies, and teaching methods
suitable for the child.
3. (D) Regular evaluation of IEP to check the child's progress
o Continuous evaluation helps determine whether the child is
progressing as expected and if the IEP needs modification.
4. (B) Continuous access and use of support services
o The child should consistently receive necessary support
services (speech therapy, occupational therapy, counseling,
etc.) to aid overall development.

33Q33. Which of the following are characteristic features of Internal
Communication in a corporate organization?
(A) Interaction between employer and employee of same organisation
(B) Interaction between two employees of same department and same
organisation
(C) Interaction among several employees of same organization but different
departments
(D) Interaction between employees of different organizations
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (D) only
2. (A), (C) and (D) only
3. (B), (C) and (D) only
4. (A), (B) and (C) only

The correct answer is Option 4. (A), (B) and (C) only

Internal communication means the exchange of information within an
organization. It helps in coordination and smooth functioning among
different levels of employees.
• (A) Interaction between employer and employee of the same
organization – Yes, it is internal.
• (B) Interaction between two employees of the same department –
Yes, it is internal.
• (C) Interaction among employees of the same organization but
different departments – Yes, it is internal.
• (D) Interaction between employees of different organizations – ❌
This is external communication.

34Q34. Which among the following is an example of Broadcast Media?
1. Television program
2. Government mobile service provider
3. Fashion magazine
4. Internet

The correct answer is Option 1. Television program
Broadcast media refers to communication channels that transmit
information to a large audience simultaneously through electronic means.
This includes mediums like television and radio, where content is broadcast
over airwaves or digital signals.
• Television program is a prime example of broadcast media as it is
transmitted to the public through TV networks and reaches a mass
audience at the same time.
• Fashion magazine represents print media.
• Internet is a form of digital or new media.
• Government mobile service provider is not a media type.

35Q35. Who among the following is responsible for planning, organising and
controlling the kitchen operations?
1. Kitchen Steward
2. Chef-de-parties
3. Deputy Chef
4. Chef-de-cuisine

The correct answer is Option 4. Chef-de-cuisine
The Chef-de-cuisine, also known as the Executive Chef or Head Chef, is
responsible for the overall management of kitchen operations. This includes:
• Planning the menu and deciding recipes.

• Organising the workflow and assigning duties to various chefs and
kitchen staff.
• Controlling the quality of food, managing inventory, and ensuring
hygiene and safety standards are met.
• Supervising all sections of the kitchen (sauces, soups, baking, cold
kitchen, etc.) to ensure smooth operations.

36Q36. The science of relationship between man, machinery and equipment
that human beings use and the work environment is known as _____________ .
1. Agronomics
2. Economics
3. Ergonomics
4. Mechanical Science

The correct answer is Option 3. Ergonomics
Ergonomics is the scientific study of the relationship between humans,
machines, equipment, and the work environment. It focuses on designing
tools, systems, and workplaces that fit human physical and cognitive
abilities to enhance efficiency, safety, and comfort.
• The main goal of ergonomics is to reduce strain, fatigue, and injury
while improving productivity and overall work quality.
• It ensures that work environments are human-centered, leading to
better performance and satisfaction.

37Q37. Arrange the steps involved in Media Planning and Designing Production
Process in correct sequence:
(A) Media Buying
(B) Designing strategies for selection of suitable media, channel
(C) Media Audience
(D) Media designing, development of communication model and material
(E) Writing Media Schedule or Blue Print
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)
2. (D), (C), (E), (B), (A)


3. (B), (E), (A), (D), (C)
4. (C), (B), (E), (D), (A)

The correct answer is Option 4. (C), (B), (D), (E), (A)
The Media Planning and Designing Production Process involves a series of
logical steps to ensure that the message reaches the target audience
effectively and efficiently. Here’s the correct sequence:
1. (C) Media Audience – The first step is identifying and analyzing the
target audience to understand their preferences, media habits, and
communication needs.
2. (B) Designing strategies for selection of suitable media, channel –
After knowing the audience, strategies are framed to select the most
suitable media or communication channels.
3. (D) Media designing, development of communication model and
material – The communication content and materials are then
developed and designed to align with the strategy.

4. (E) Writing Media Schedule or Blue Print – Next, a media schedule or
blueprint is prepared outlining when and where the messages will
appear.
5. (A) Media Buying – Finally, the actual purchase of media space or
time is done for executing the plan.

38Q38. Which 'Philosopher' practised seven principles including 'Tell the truth',
Manage for tomorrow' of Public Relations management?
1. Jean Piaget
2. Lev Vygotsky
3. Arthur W. Page
4. Sigmund Freud

The correct answer is Option 3. Arthur W. Page
Arthur W. Page is regarded as one of the pioneers of Public Relations (PR)
management. He emphasized that ethical communication and corporate
integrity are fundamental to maintaining public trust.
He developed the Seven Principles of Public Relations Management, which
include:
1. Tell the truth
2. Prove it with action
3. Listen to the customer
4. Manage for tomorrow
5. Conduct public relations as if the whole company depends on it
6. Realize a company’s true character is expressed by its people
7. Remain calm, patient, and good-humored
These principles continue to guide modern public relations and corporate
communication practices.

39Q39. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
SDG Number
Name of SDG
(A) SDG 3
(I) Reduce inequality within as well as as
among countries
(B) SDG 5
(II) Ensure sustainable consumption and
production patterns
(C) SDG 10
(III) Ensure healthy lives and promote
well-being for all at all ages
(D) SDG 12
(IV) Ensure sustainable consumption
and production patterns

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (I), (B) – (II), (C) – (III), (D) – (IV)
2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (IV)
3. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

The correct answer is Option 4. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)
Each Sustainable Development Goal (SDG) has a specific focus area under
the United Nations 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development:
• (A) SDG 3 – Ensure healthy lives and promote well-being for all at all
ages → (III)

• (B) SDG 5 – Achieve gender equality and empower all women and
girls → (IV)
• (C) SDG 10 – Reduce inequality within and among countries → (I)
• (D) SDG 12 – Ensure sustainable consumption and production
patterns → (II)

40Q40. Tucks in a yoke and knife pleats in a skirt create which of the following
form of rhythm effect in a dress?
1. Repetition
2. Cordation

3. Parallelism
4. Radiation
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
The government is making considerable efforts to solve the nutritional
problems. POSHAN Abhiyaan was launched in Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan in
March 2018. Its large component involves gradual scaling-up of
interventions to all districts in the country by 2022. It targets stunting,
under-nutrition, anaemia (among young children, women and adolescent
girls) and low birth rate. The Ministry of Women and Child Development
(MWCD) is implementing POSHAN Abhiyaan in 315 districts in the first
year, 235 districts in the second year and remaining districts will be
covered in the third year. Through robust multi ministerial convergence
mechanism and other components POSHAN Abhiyaan strives to create the
synergy.

The correct answer is Option 1. Repetition
In fashion design, rhythm refers to the visual flow or movement created by
repeating design elements in a garment.
• Tucks in a yoke and knife pleats in a skirt are both examples of
regularly repeated folds or lines in fabric.
• This repetition of similar shapes, lines, or patterns creates a Repetition
rhythm, which provides a sense of harmony, continuity, and
structured design.
Other options:
• Coordination – Refers to the harmony between various elements but
not rhythm specifically.
• Parallelism – Refers to lines or folds running parallel but does not
necessarily imply rhythmic repetition.
• Radiation – Occurs when lines or designs spread outward from a
central point.

41Q41. The POSHAN Abhiyan is being implemented by which Ministry?
1. Ministry of AYUSH
2. Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD)
3. Ministry of Health and Family Welfare (MoHFW)
4. Ministry of Food Processing Industries

The correct answer is Option 2. Ministry of Women and Child Development
(MWCD)
According to the passage, the POSHAN Abhiyaan is being implemented by
the Ministry of Women and Child Development (MWCD). The programme
aims to address issues like stunting, under-nutrition, anaemia, and low birth
weight through a multi-ministerial convergence mechanism.

42Q42. Integrated Child Development Services covers vulnerable children in
the age group of _____________ years?
1. 0-6
2. 3-6
3. 0-3
4. 2-7

The correct answer is Option 1. 0–6 years
The Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme is one of India’s
flagship programmes aimed at improving the health, nutrition, and
development of vulnerable children below six years of age. It also provides
support to pregnant women and lactating mothers through services such as
supplementary nutrition, immunization, health check-ups, and preschool
education.

43Q43. What is the full-form of POSHAN?
1. PM's Overarching Service for Holistic Nutrition
2. PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nourishment
3. PM's Old Scheme for Healthy Nutrition
4. PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition

The correct answer is Option 4. PM's Overarching Scheme for Holistic
Nutrition
The full form of POSHAN is “Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for
Holistic Nutrition.”
It was launched as part of the POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition
Mission) in 2018 to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant
women, and lactating mothers through a targeted and convergent approach.

44Q44. Which of the following is NOT a direct short term intervention under
the POSHAN Abhiyan?
1. Fortification of essential foods (salt fortified with iodine)
2. Production and popularisation of low cost nutritious foods from
indigenous and locally available raw material
3. Ensuring food security i.e., improving availability of food
4. Control of micronutrient deficiencies among vulnerable groups

The correct answer is Option 3. Ensuring food security i.e., improving
availability of food
Under the POSHAN Abhiyaan, the focus is primarily on direct short-term
nutritional interventions such as:
• Fortification of essential foods (e.g., iodized salt, fortified flour, etc.)
• Production and promotion of low-cost nutritious foods from locally
available ingredients
• Control of micronutrient deficiencies among vulnerable groups,
including children and women
However, ensuring food security - that is, improving the overall availability
and access to food - is a long-term and indirect intervention. It goes beyond
the scope of POSHAN Abhiyaan’s direct nutrition-specific measures.

45Q45. The POSHAN Abhiyaan was first launched in which state?
1. Gujarat
2. Rajasthan
3. Haryana
4. Punjab
Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows:
In the counselling process, the professional counsellor may use different
techniques. In directive or counsellor-centred counselling, the counsellor
plays a major role and does all that is possible to get the counsellee to make
decisions in keeping with the diagnosis of the problem. In non-directive or
permissive or client-centred counselling, the counsellor's role is
comparatively passive. The counsellee takes an active part in the process of
therapy. The person seeking help is encouraged to gain insight into the
problem with the help of the counsellor. The counsellee takes the final
decisions. Thus, this counselling process turns out to be a growth
experience for the person. In eclectic counselling, counsellors who advocate
using this type of counselling are of the view that directed or non-directed
counselling are two ends of continuum. And counsellors should incorporate
suitable techniques from both the types of counselling mentioned above as
and when required, depending on the situation, the problem and the
temperament of the client.

The correct answer is Option 2. Rajasthan
The POSHAN Abhiyaan (National Nutrition Mission) was launched in
Jhunjhunu, Rajasthan, on 8th March 2018 by the Hon’ble Prime Minister of
India.
The mission aims to improve nutritional outcomes for children, pregnant
women, and lactating mothers through coordinated efforts among various
ministries and departments.

46Q46. In which type of professional counselling, counsellors plays the major
role?
1. Eclectic counselling
2. Directive counselling

3. Permissive counselling
4. Non-airective counselling

The correct answer is Option 2. Directive counselling
In directive counselling (also called counsellor-centred counselling), the
counsellor plays the major role in guiding the counsellee. The counsellor
analyses the problem, provides advice, and helps the individual make
decisions based on the diagnosis.
Here, the counsellee’s participation is limited, while the counsellor actively
directs the entire counselling process.

47Q47. In which type of counselling technique, the counsellee takes the final
decision?
1. Permissive counselling
2. Informal counselling
3. Directive counselling
4. Eclectic counselling

The correct answer is Option 1. Permissive counselling
In permissive counselling, also known as non-directive or client-centred
counselling, the counsellee (client) plays the active role in the process. The
counsellor remains passive, offering support and guidance while helping the
client understand their own problems.
The final decision is taken by the counsellee, making it a self-growth
experience that encourages independence and personal insight.

48Q48. In _____________ type of counselling, the person seeking help is
encouraged to gain insight into the problem. Fill in the blank with the
appropriate option.
1. Non-specialist
2. Eclectic
3. Non-directive
4. Counsellor-centred

The correct answer is Option 3. Non-directive

In non-directive counselling (also called permissive or client-centred
counselling), the person seeking help (counsellee) is encouraged to gain
insight into their own problems.
The counsellor provides a supportive and understanding environment,
helping the counsellee explore their feelings and thoughts freely. The aim is
to help the individual develop self-understanding and make independent
decisions.

49Q49. Which type of counselling recommends the use of different counselling
methods based on the situation, the problem and the temperament of the
client?
1. Counsellor-centred counselling
2. Client-centred counselling
3. Eclectic counselling
4. Informal counselling

The correct answer is Option 3. Eclectic counselling
In eclectic counselling, the counsellor combines techniques from both
directive (counsellor-centred) and non-directive (client-centred)
counselling.
The approach is flexible and depends on the situation, nature of the
problem, and temperament of the client.
The counsellor chooses the most suitable method or technique as per the
needs of the individual to ensure effective results.

50Q50. In which technique of counselling, the counsellors are of the view that
directed or non-directed counseling are two ends of continuum?
1. Permissive counselling
2. Non-directive counselling
3. Directive counselling
4. Eclectic counselling

The correct answer is Option 4. Eclectic counselling
In eclectic counselling, counsellors believe that directive and non-directive
counselling are two ends of a continuum.
This means that counselling should not be strictly one type; instead, it
should blend both approaches depending on the client’s needs and the
specific situation.
The counsellor flexibly selects techniques from either approach to help the
counsellee most effectively.

FAQs

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