CUET UG 2025 Psychology Previous Year Solved Paper

CUET UG 2025 Psychology previous year paper with easy solutions. This page keeps the original questions and presents student-friendly explanations in a clean table format for quick revision, practice, and topic-wise mock preparation.

Subject: Psychology
Year: 2025
Questions extracted: 50
Source format: previous year paper PDF with solution section

Student-Friendly Solutions Table

Each question is shown with its original wording from the source paper and an easier explanation designed for quick understanding.

Q.No. Question Easy Solution
1Q1. An advertisement for cooking food in a pressure cooker points out that
this saves fuel and is economical. What message characteristic is being
highlighted in the advertisement?
1. Emotional
2. Rational
3. Familial
4. Personal

The correct answer is Option 2. Rational
A rational message appeals to logic, reasoning, and factual benefits rather
than emotions.
In this advertisement, the focus is on saving fuel and being economical,
which are practical and measurable advantages.
The ad uses facts and logic to convince consumers that using a pressure
cooker is more efficient and cost-saving.

2Q2. Ananya is pursuing the science stream and aims to be a doctor some day.
However, Ananya strums her guitar and sings along whenever she is free.
Although she is not a great singer, her spirits lift when she sings along. What
is this attribute called?
1. Aptitude
2. Personality
3. Interest
4. Intelligence

The correct answer is Option 3. Interest
Interest refers to the activities or subjects that a person enjoys doing in
their free time, regardless of skill or expertise.
In this case, Ananya enjoys singing and playing the guitar even though she
may not be very good at it. This shows her liking or preference for that
activity, which defines interest, not aptitude or intelligence.

3Q3. The ability to monitor one's own and other's emotions, to discriminate
among them and to use the information to guide one's thinking and actions is
called:
1. Social intelligence
2. Emotional intelligence
3. Interpersonal intelligence
4. Abstract intelligence


Previous Years' Paper
Common University Entrance Test for UG Programmes
Entrance Exam, 2025
CUET-UG - Psychology
(After the list of questions, the solution will Start.)

The correct answer is Option 2. Emotional intelligence
Emotional intelligence (EI) is the ability to recognize, understand, and
manage one’s own emotions, as well as to recognize and influence the
emotions of others.
It includes:
• Self-awareness: Knowing one’s own emotions.
• Self-regulation: Managing emotions effectively.
• Empathy: Understanding others’ feelings.
• Social skills: Using emotional understanding to guide behavior and
relationships.

4Q4. Kohs Block Design Test contains a number of wooden blocks to be
arranged in a design within a given time period. This test is an example of:
1. Performance test
2. Non-verbal test
3. Verbal test
4. Aptitude test

The correct answer is Option 1. Performance test
The Kohs Block Design Test measures a person’s ability to analyze and
reproduce visual patterns using wooden blocks. It does not require reading,
writing, or verbal responses - instead, it depends on manipulating physical
objects.
Hence, it is a Performance Test, as it assesses intelligence or problem-
solving ability through action-based tasks rather than spoken or written
language.

5Q5. Arshiya has an I.Q. of 135. She is an all-rounder. She not only scores at the
top of her class but is also an international chess player and a remarkable
beat player as well. Arshiya can be classified as:
1. Gifted
2. Smart
3. Creative
4. Intelligent

The correct answer is Option 1. Gifted
A person is considered gifted when they have an IQ above 130 and show
exceptional ability or talent in multiple areas such as academics, music, arts,
or sports.
In this case, Arshiya’s IQ is 135, which is well above average, and she excels
in academics, chess, and music. This combination of high intelligence and
outstanding performance makes her a gifted individual.

6Q6. Identify the facets of intelligence in the Indian tradition from the
following options:
(A) Cognitive capacity
(B) Social competence
(C) Emotional competence
(D) Individualistic orientation
(E) Entrepreneurial competence
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C) and (D) only
2. (B), (C), (D) and (E) only
3. (A), (B), (C) and (E) Only
4. (A), (C), (D) and (E) only

The correct answer is Option 3. (A), (B), (C) and (E) only
In the Indian tradition, intelligence is viewed as a holistic concept that
integrates not only thinking ability but also emotional, social, and practical
aspects. The major facets of intelligence in this view are:
• (A) Cognitive capacity: The ability to think, reason, and understand.
• (B) Social competence: The ability to build and maintain harmonious
relationships.
• (C) Emotional competence: Understanding and managing one’s
emotions effectively.
• (E) Entrepreneurial competence: Practical intelligence and problem-
solving skills in real-life situations.

However, (D) Individualistic orientation does not align with the Indian view,
which emphasizes collective well-being and interdependence, not
individualism.

7Q7. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II

(A) Poets and writers
(I) Intrapersonal
(B) Scientists
(II) Bodily-Kinaesthetic
(C) Philosophers and spiritual leaders (III) Logical-Mathematical
(D) Athletes, dancers and gymnasts
(IV) Linguistic

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (II), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
2. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
3. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)
4. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (I), (D) – (II)

The correct answer is Option 4. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
This question is based on Howard Gardner’s Theory of Multiple
Intelligences, which identifies different types of intelligence people use to
perform various activities effectively.
Here’s the correct matching:
• (A) Poets and writers → (IV) Linguistic intelligence
They use language creatively and effectively for expression.
• (B) Scientists → (III) Logical-Mathematical intelligence
They use reasoning, logic, and analysis to solve problems.
• (C) Philosophers and spiritual leaders → (I) Intrapersonal intelligence
They have deep self-awareness and understanding of inner thoughts
and feelings.
• (D) Athletes, dancers, and gymnasts → (II) Bodily-Kinaesthetic
intelligence
They use body coordination and movement skillfully.

8Q8. An in-depth study of the individual in terms of his/her psychological
attributes, psychological history in the context of his/her psycho-social and
physical environment is known as:
1. Interview
2. Self-report
3. Psychological test
4. Case-study

The correct answer is Option 4. Case-study
A case study is a detailed and in-depth investigation of an individual to
understand their psychological attributes, life history, and behavior in the
context of their social and physical environment.
• It provides a holistic understanding of a person’s life experiences,
emotional patterns, and personality.
• It is commonly used in clinical psychology, counseling, and education
to study unique or complex cases in depth.

• Example: Studying a patient’s background, behavior, and recovery
process to understand the causes of a mental disorder.

9Q9. Which of the following can be categorised under the verbal test?
(A) Stanford-Binet Test
(B) Alexander's Passalong Test
(C) Raven's Progressive Matrices
(D) Draw-a-Man Test
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) only
2. (C) only
3. (B) and (D) only
4. (C) and (D) only

The correct answer is Option 1. (A) only
A verbal test measures intelligence or ability through the use of language-
based questions, such as vocabulary, comprehension, and reasoning.
Let’s analyze each option:
• (A) Stanford–Binet Test → Verbal Test
This test measures verbal reasoning, comprehension, and language
skills along with other cognitive abilities.
• (B) Alexander’s Passalong Test → Performance Test ❌
It involves manipulating blocks to complete patterns, which doesn’t
require verbal responses.
• (C) Raven’s Progressive Matrices → Non-verbal Test ❌
It assesses abstract reasoning and pattern recognition, independent of
language.
• (D) Draw-a-Man Test → Performance Test ❌
It requires drawing, not verbal communication, so it’s non-verbal.

10Q10. Arrange the psychosexual stages of personality development in the
correct sequence:
(A) Anal
(B) Oral
(C) Genital
(D) Latency
(E) Phallic
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (E), (D), (C)
2. (B), (A), (E), (D), (C)
3. (B), (A), (C), (D), (E)
4. (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)

The correct answer is Option 2. (B), (A), (E), (D), (C)
According to Sigmund Freud’s psychosexual theory of personality
development, the stages occur in a fixed sequence based on the focus of
libido (sexual energy) on different erogenous zones:
1. Oral stage (B): Birth to 1 year — pleasure centers on the mouth
(sucking, eating).
2. Anal stage (A): 1 to 3 years — focus on controlling bowel and bladder
movements.

3. Phallic stage (E): 3 to 6 years — focus on genitals; development of
Oedipus/Electra complex.
4. Latency stage (D): 6 years to puberty — sexual impulses are
repressed; focus on learning and social skills.
5. Genital stage (C): Puberty onward — mature sexual interests re-
emerge.
Thus, the correct sequence is: Oral → Anal → Phallic → Latency → Genital

11Q11. Source traits are:
(A) stable
(B) result of the interaction between surface traits
(C) considered as the building blocks of personality
(D) quite generalised dispositions
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) and (B) only
2. (B) and (C) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4. (A) and (D) only

The correct answer is Option 4. (A) and (D) only
The concept of Source Traits was proposed by Raymond Cattell in his Trait
Theory of Personality.
• Source traits are the basic, underlying, and stable characteristics that
shape a person’s behavior.
• They are broad and general dispositions that influence many surface
traits (observable behaviors).
• In contrast, surface traits are the visible and less stable expressions of
personality.
Therefore:
• (A) Stable — Source traits are enduring over time.
• (D) Quite generalised dispositions — They reflect fundamental
patterns of personality.
• (B) ❌ Source traits are not a result of surface traits; instead, surface
traits arise from them.
• (C) ❌ “Building blocks” refers more to surface traits, not source
traits.

12Q12. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(A) Interactional approach (I) Understands personality in relation
to the features of ecological and cultural
environment

(B) Type approach
(II) Focuses on identifying primary
characteristics of the people
(C) Trait approach
(III) Situational characteristics play an
important role in determining our
behaviour
(D) Cultural approach
(IV) Examines certain broad patterns in
the observed behavioural characteristics
of the individuals
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) - (IV), (B) - (I), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
2. (A) - (I), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (III)
3. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
4. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

The correct answer is Option 3. (A) – (III), (B) – (IV), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

• (A) Interactional approach → (IV) Examines certain broad patterns in
behaviour: This approach suggests that personality is shaped by the
interaction between personal traits and situational factors.
• (B) Type approach → (II) Focuses on identifying primary
characteristics of people: It classifies individuals into distinct types
(e.g., introvert–extrovert, Type A–Type B).
• (C) Trait approach → (I) Understands personality in relation to
ecological and cultural environment: The trait approach emphasizes
stable characteristics that describe how a person behaves consistently
across situations.
• (D) Cultural approach → (III) Situational characteristics play an
important role in determining behaviour: This approach explains
personality in the context of cultural and environmental influences
that shape individual traits and actions.
Hence, the correct matching is: (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)

13Q13. Which technique of personality assessment puts individuals into certain
categories in terms of their behavioural qualities?
1. Interview
2. Behavioural rating
3. Nomination
4. Situational test

The correct answer is Option 2. Behavioural rating
A behavioural rating technique involves evaluating individuals on specific
behavioural traits and then categorizing them into defined groups based on
their observable qualities - such as sociability, responsibility, or leadership.
It helps in systematically assessing personality by using rating scales or
checklists completed by observers like teachers, peers, or supervisors.
Unlike interviews or situational tests, which focus on qualitative
understanding or performance in specific contexts, behavioural rating
directly classifies people according to their behavioural characteristics.

14Q14. According to Jung's analytical psychology, 'God' and 'Mother earth' are
examples of:
1. Superiority complex
2. Superego
3. Archetypes
4. Basic anxiety

The correct answer is Option 3. Archetypes
According to Carl Jung’s Analytical Psychology, archetypes are universal,
inherited symbols or images stored in the collective unconscious that shape

human thoughts and behaviours. Examples include the mother, Hero, God,
and Shadow archetypes.
‘God’ and ‘Mother Earth’ represent powerful symbolic patterns that appear
across cultures and religions, reflecting humanity’s shared psychological
heritage — hence, they are archetypes, not personal experiences or
complexes.

15Q15. Tendency of the subject to agree with items irrespective of their content
is called:
1. Acquiescence
2. Halo effect

3. Social desirability
4. Extreme response bias

The correct answer is Option 1. Acquiescence
Acquiescence refers to a response bias in which a person tends to agree with
statements or items on a questionnaire regardless of their actual content. It
reflects a general tendency to say “yes” or show approval rather than
providing thoughtful, content-based responses.
This differs from:
• Halo effect: judging a person’s overall impression based on one
positive trait.
• Social desirability: answering in a way that makes one look good
socially.
• Extreme response bias: consistently choosing only the extreme ends
of rating scales.

16Q16. As an actor, the self actively engages in the process of knowing itself.
This status of self is called ___________________ .
1. self as subject
2. self as object

3. ideal self
4. real self

The correct answer is Option 1. self as subject
When the self is viewed as an active knower or experiencer, engaging in
understanding or reflecting upon itself, it is referred to as the self as subject.
This aspect of self represents the “I” — the one who thinks, feels, and acts.
In contrast, self as object refers to the “me”, the part of the self that is being
observed or known. Thus, when the self actively participates in the process
of knowing itself, it is functioning as the subject.

17Q17. The client-centered therapy developed by Carl Rogers is based on:
1. Psychodynamic approach
2. Cognitive approach
3. Behavioural approach
4. Humanistic approach

The correct answer is Option 4. Humanistic approach
Client-centered therapy, developed by Carl Rogers, is grounded in the
Humanistic approach to psychology. This approach emphasizes the inherent
goodness and potential of individuals, focusing on self-growth, self-
awareness, and personal responsibility.
Rogers believed that people can achieve psychological well-being when
provided with a supportive environment characterized by empathy,
unconditional positive regard, and genuineness. Unlike the psychodynamic
or behavioural approaches, the humanistic approach views the client as the
center of the healing process, capable of directing their own growth.

18Q18. Who is NOT associated with the trait approach of personality?
1. Costa and McCrae
2. Allport
3. Sheldon
4. Cattell

The correct answer is Option 3. Sheldon
William Sheldon is known for his somatotype theory, which links body types
(endomorphic, mesomorphic, ectomorphic) with personality traits. His
approach is biological and constitutional, not part of the trait approach.
In contrast:
• Allport identified cardinal, central, and secondary traits.
• Cattell proposed 16 Personality Factors (16PF).
• Costa and McCrae developed the Five-Factor Model (Big Five).
Hence, Sheldon is not associated with the trait approach of personality.

19Q19. Who developed the Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)?
1. Morgan and Murray
2. Binet and Simon
3. Miller and Dollard
4. Costa and McCrae

The correct answer is Option 1. Morgan and Murray
The Thematic Apperception Test (TAT) was developed by Henry A. Murray
and Christiana D. Morgan. It is a projective personality test designed to
uncover a person’s underlying motives, emotions, and conflicts.
In the TAT, individuals are shown ambiguous pictures and asked to create
stories about them. The way they interpret these images reveals aspects of
their personality, needs, and drives, based on the themes and emotions they
project onto the pictures.

20Q20. What is the full form of PTSD?
1. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
2. Pre Traumatic Stress Disorder

3. Post Traumatic Situational Disorder
4. Pre Traumatic Situational Disorder

The correct answer is Option 1. Post Traumatic Stress Disorder
PTSD (Post Traumatic Stress Disorder) is a psychological condition that
develops after experiencing or witnessing a traumatic or life-threatening
event, such as an accident, natural disaster, or violence.
People with PTSD may experience flashbacks, nightmares, severe anxiety,
and intrusive thoughts related to the event. The term “post-traumatic”
means that the symptoms occur after the trauma has taken place.

21Q21. Tinku has been undergoing Rational Emotive Therapy (RET). Identify
the correct sequence of the therapeutic process:
(A) Negative emotions and behaviours as consequences of the antecedent
event are identified and noted
(B) Client's irrational beliefs which are distorting present reality are
identified
(C) Antecedent events which caused psychological distress are noted
(D) The irrational beliefs are refuted by the therapist through non-directive
questioning
(E) Eventually, the client is able to replace the irrational beliefs with the
rational ones.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (B), (D), (A), (C), (E)
2. (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
3. (D), (B), (A). (C), (E)
4. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E)

The correct answer is Option 2. (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
Rational Emotive Therapy (RET), developed by Albert Ellis, follows the A–B–
C–D–E model of understanding and correcting irrational beliefs:
• A (Activating event): Identify the antecedent event that caused
distress → (C)
• B (Belief): Recognize the irrational beliefs related to that event → (B)
• C (Consequence): Note the negative emotions and behaviours
resulting from those beliefs → (A)
• D (Disputation): Challenge and refute the irrational beliefs through
questioning → (D)
• E (Effect): Replace the irrational beliefs with rational, healthy
thoughts → (E)
Thus, the correct therapeutic sequence is: (C) → (B) → (A) → (D) → (E)

22Q22. Who used the concept of 'balance' in his theory of attitude change?
1. Leon Festinger
2. Fritz Heider
3. Richard LaPiere
4. Gordon Allport

The correct answer is Option 2. Fritz Heider

Fritz Heider proposed the Balance Theory of attitude change, which
explains how people strive to maintain psychological consistency in their
relationships and beliefs.
According to this theory, individuals prefer a balanced state where their
attitudes toward people and objects are harmonious. When imbalance
occurs - for example, when you like someone who dislikes what you like - it
creates psychological tension, motivating you to change your attitude to
restore balance.
This concept is part of Heider’s P-O-X model (Person–Other–Object),
illustrating how attitudes adjust to maintain mental harmony.

23Q23. Which one of the following is NOT a significant property of attitude?
1. Valence
2. Centrality
3. Extremeness
4. Quantity

The correct answer is Option 4. Quantity
The significant properties of attitude are:
• Valence: Whether the attitude is positive or negative toward an object
or issue.
• Centrality: How central or important the attitude is to one’s belief
system.
• Extremeness: The intensity or strength of the attitude (how strongly
one feels).
Quantity, however, is not a recognized property of attitude — it does not
describe the nature or strength of an attitude but merely refers to an
amount, which is unrelated to psychological measurement of attitudes.

24Q24. Who has proposed two-step concept to describe the process of attitude
change?
1. Mohsin
2. Heider
3. Janis
4. Triplett

The correct answer is Option 1. Mohsin
S.M. Mohsin, an Indian psychologist, proposed the two-step concept to
explain the process of attitude change.
According to this model, attitude change occurs through two stages:
1. Step 1 – Acceptance of new information: The individual receives and
understands persuasive communication or information.

2. Step 2 – Internalization and change: The person integrates the new
information into their belief system, leading to an actual change in
attitude.
This concept emphasizes that attitude change is not immediate; it involves
understanding first and acceptance later, distinguishing Mohsin’s model
from other theories like Festinger’s cognitive dissonance or Heider’s
balance theory.

25Q25. Festinger and Carlsmith conducted a famous experiment in the field of
social psychology. This experiment was related to:
1. Groupthink
2. Prejudice
3. Cognitive dissonance
4. Schema

The correct answer is Option 3. Cognitive dissonance
Leon Festinger and James Carlsmith conducted a classic 1959 experiment
demonstrating the concept of cognitive dissonance, which refers to the
mental discomfort experienced when a person holds two or more
inconsistent beliefs, attitudes, or behaviors.
In their study, participants performed a boring task and were later asked to
tell others it was interesting. Those paid $1 (insufficient justification)
experienced more dissonance and changed their attitude to believe the task
was enjoyable, compared to those paid $20.
This experiment showed that people often change their attitudes to align
with their actions to reduce internal psychological tension — a key idea in
Festinger’s Cognitive Dissonance Theory.

26Q26. Which one of the following strategies is not effective in dealing with
prejudice?
1. Minimising opportunities for learning prejudices
2. Encouraging the tendency towards self-fulfilling prophecy among the
victims of prejudice
3. Changing discriminatory attitudes
4. De-emphasising a narrow social identity based on the ingroup

The correct answer is Option 2. Encouraging the tendency towards self-
fulfilling prophecy among the victims of prejudice
A self-fulfilling prophecy occurs when people internalize negative
expectations about themselves and behave in ways that confirm those
expectations. Encouraging this tendency would reinforce prejudice rather
than reduce it, making it ineffective in dealing with prejudice.

On the other hand:
• Minimising opportunities for learning prejudices prevents biased
attitudes from developing.

• Changing discriminatory attitudes promotes equality and social
harmony.
• De-emphasising narrow social identity encourages inclusivity and
reduces “us vs. them” thinking.
Hence, promoting self-fulfilling prophecy among victims worsens prejudice
instead of helping overcome it.

27Q27. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(A) Cohesiveness
(I) Strengthening of group’s initial position as
a result of group interaction and discussion
(B) Status
(II) Socially defined expectations that are
expected to be fulfilled
(C) Roles
(III) Relative position given to group members
by others

(D) Group polarisation (IV) Togetherness or mutual attraction among
group members

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) – (I), (B) – (III), (C) – (IV), (D) – (II)
2. (A) – (III), (B) – (II), (C) – (IV), (D) – (I)
3. (A) – (II), (B) – (IV), (C) – (I), (D) – (III)
4. (A) – (IV), (B) – (III), (C) – (II), (D) – (I)

The correct answer is Option 2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
• (A) Cohesiveness → (IV) Togetherness or mutual attraction among
group members: Cohesiveness refers to the strength of the bond and
sense of unity within a group.
• (B) Status → (III) Relative position given to group members by others:
Status represents the social standing or rank of an individual within
the group.
• (C) Roles → (II) Socially defined expectations that are expected to be
fulfilled: Roles describe the functions or responsibilities individuals
are expected to perform in the group.
• (D) Group Polarisation → (I) Strengthening of group’s initial position
as a result of group interaction and discussion: Group polarisation
occurs when discussions within a group lead members to adopt more
extreme positions than they initially held.
Hence, the correct matching is: (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)

28Q28. Arrange the following from the highest to lowest level of correlation in
terms of IQ:
(A) The correlation between siblings reared together
(B) The correlation between identical twins reared together
(C) The correlation between siblings reared apart
(D) The correlation between identical twins reared in different
environments
(E) The correlation of fraternal twins reared together
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (E), (D), (C), (A), (B)
2. (C), (A), (E), (D), (B)
3. (B), (E), (D), (A), (C)
4. (B), (D), (E) (A), (C)

The correct answer is Option 4. (B), (D), (E), (A), (C)
Studies on genetic and environmental influences on intelligence (IQ) show
that IQ correlation depends on both genetic similarity and shared
environment.
The more genes two people share, the higher their IQ correlation —
especially if they grow up together.
Here’s the correct order from highest to lowest correlation:

• (B) Identical twins reared together: Highest correlation (~0.85–0.90)
because they share 100% genes and the same environment.
• (D) Identical twins reared in different environments: High correlation
(~0.70) due to identical genetics despite different environments.
• (E) Fraternal twins reared together: Moderate correlation (~0.60) as
they share about 50% genes and the same environment.
• (A) Siblings reared together: Lower correlation (~0.45–0.50) with
50% shared genes and same environment.
• (C) Siblings reared apart: Lowest correlation (~0.25) because they
share only genes, not the environment.
Thus, the sequence is: (B) → (D) → (E) → (A) → (C)

29Q29. Anxiety disorders have been linked to low activity of the
___________________ neurotransmitter.
1. Gamma Aminobutyric Acid
2. Serotonin
3. Dopamine
4. Cortisol

The correct answer is Option 1. Gamma Aminobutyric Acid
Gamma Aminobutyric Acid (GABA) is an inhibitory neurotransmitter in the
brain that helps calm neural activity and reduce anxiety. Low levels or
reduced functioning of GABA lead to increased neural excitation, resulting in
heightened anxiety, tension, and nervousness.
Medications for anxiety, such as benzodiazepines, work by enhancing the
effects of GABA to produce a calming effect.
Hence, low GABA activity is strongly associated with anxiety disorders.

30Q30. Which model emphasises that 'psychological disorders are the result of
learning maladaptive ways of behaving'?

1. Psychodynamic model
2. Behavioural model
3. Cognitive model
4. Humanistic-existential model

The correct answer is Option 2. Behavioural model
The Behavioural model explains that psychological disorders arise from
learning maladaptive or faulty behaviours through processes like classical
conditioning, operant conditioning, or observational learning.
According to this model, abnormal behaviour is learned just like normal
behaviour — through reinforcement or imitation — and can therefore be
unlearned or modified using behavioural techniques such as systematic
desensitisation, reinforcement, or extinction.

In contrast,
• The Psychodynamic model focuses on unconscious conflicts,
• The Cognitive model on faulty thinking, and
• The Humanistic-existential model on issues of self and personal
growth.

31Q31. Pari, who is eight years old now, continues to cling to her parents and
refuses to go to school without them. She screams, throws tantrums and feels
fearful when she is left alone in a room by herself. These are characteristic
features of:
1. Panic disorder
2. Phobia
3. Separation anxiety disorder
4. Generalised anxiety disorder

The correct answer is Option 3. Separation anxiety disorder
Separation Anxiety Disorder is common in children and involves excessive
fear or anxiety when separated from home or attachment figures, such as
parents. The child may cry, cling, or throw tantrums when separation is
anticipated or occurs.
In Pari’s case, her refusal to go to school without her parents, fear of being
alone, and emotional distress when separated clearly indicate separation
anxiety, not a general or specific fear like in phobia or generalized anxiety
disorder.

32Q32. Archit works in an office where he feels that he is being spied on. He is
sure that people deliberately assign him more work as they want him thrown
out on grounds of incompetence. Archit also feels that people tamper with
his computer and call him from multiple numbers to attack his personal
space. What kind of delusion is Archit suffering from?
1. Delusion of grandeur
2. Delusion of reference
3. Delusion of control
4. Delusion of persecution

The correct answer is Option 4. Delusion of persecution
A delusion of persecution occurs when a person believes that others are
trying to harm, spy on, or conspire against them, even though there is no
real evidence. In Archit’s case, he thinks people are assigning him extra
work, tampering with his computer, and calling him to invade his personal
space—all signs of a persecutory belief.
Such delusions are commonly seen in disorders like Paranoid
Schizophrenia, where individuals misinterpret ordinary events as targeted
attacks against them.

33Q33. Arrange different levels of Intellectual Disability in order of higher to
lower level of dysfunctioning:
(A) Mild
(B) Moderate
(C) Severe

(D) Profound
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (B), (C), (D)
2. (C), (B), (D), (A)
3. (B), (A), (C), (D)
4. (D), (C), (B), (A)

The correct answer is Option 4. (D), (C), (B), (A)

The levels of Intellectual Disability (ID) are categorized based on the
severity of dysfunctioning (from most severe to least severe):
• Profound: Individuals show very limited functioning in all areas; they
require complete support in daily activities.
• Severe: There is marked developmental delay; individuals can learn
basic self-care and simple communication skills.
• Moderate: Individuals can perform simple tasks under supervision
and may achieve some independence in daily life.
• Mild: They show slight intellectual impairment, can achieve basic
academic skills, and often live semi-independently.
Hence, the order from higher to lower level of dysfunctioning is: Profound →
Severe → Moderate → Mild,
which corresponds to (D), (C), (B), (A).

34Q34. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
Disorder
Symptom (s)
(A) Schizophrenia
(I) Overly preoccupied with
body-related symptoms
(B) Bipolar and Related Disorders (II) Positive symptoms
(C) Separation Anxiety Disorder
(III) Fear
(D) Somatic Symptom Disorder
(IV) Suicidal thoughts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
2. (A) - (I), (B) - (II), (C) - (III), (D) - (IV)
3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
4. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)

The correct answer is Option 3. (A) - (II), (B) - (IV), (C) - (III), (D) - (I)
• Schizophrenia → Positive symptoms (II): Schizophrenia involves
positive symptoms like hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized
thinking — behaviors added to normal functioning.
• Bipolar and Related Disorders → Suicidal thoughts (IV): Individuals
with bipolar disorder may experience extreme mood swings,
including depressive episodes that can lead to suicidal ideation.
• Separation Anxiety Disorder → Fear (III): The main symptom of this
disorder is excessive fear or anxiety about being separated from
loved ones.
• Somatic Symptom Disorder → Overly preoccupied with body-related
symptoms (I): Here, the person becomes excessively concerned or
anxious about physical symptoms that may or may not have a medical
cause.

35Q35. Which of the following is NOT a component of the therapeutic
relationship?
1. Contractual nature of the relationship
2. Limited duration of the therapру
3. Trusting and confiding relationship
4. Peer counseling

The correct answer is Option 4. Peer counseling

A therapeutic relationship is the professional bond between a therapist and
client, based on trust, respect, and confidentiality. It includes elements such
as:
• Contractual nature (clear goals and roles)
• Limited duration (it exists for the period of therapy)
• Trusting and confiding relationship (essential for effective therapy)
Peer counselling, however, refers to help provided by equals—like students
helping fellow students—which is not a part of the professional therapeutic
relationship between a trained counsellor and client.

36Q36. In an upscale food delivery chain, the delivery persons are given badges
for timely food delivery at the end of each month. Bonus is given annually in
exchange for six such badges. The company has therefore been able to retain
most of its emplovees and get better returns vear after year. Which
behavioural technigue is being used to reinforce delivery personnel?
1. Negative reinforcement
2. Differential reinforcement
3. Modelling
4. Token economy

The correct answer is Option 4. Token economy
A token economy is a behavioural technique in which individuals earn
tokens or symbolic rewards (like badges, stars, or points) for displaying
desired behaviours. These tokens can later be exchanged for a larger reward
— in this case, a bonus for collecting six badges. This system encourages
consistent good performance and strengthens positive behaviour through
positive reinforcement.

37Q37. What is the most appropriate goal of Logotherapy?
1. To unlearn faulty behaviour patterns
2. To facilitate the client to find the meaning of his/her being
3. Cognitive restructuring which in turn reduces anxiety
4. To increase an individual's self-awareness

The correct answer is Option 2. To facilitate the client to find the meaning of
his/her being
Logotherapy, developed by Viktor Frankl, focuses on helping individuals
discover meaning and purpose in life, even amidst suffering or hardship. It
is based on the belief that the primary human drive is not pleasure or
power, but the search for meaning. By finding meaning in life, individuals
can overcome feelings of emptiness, despair, or anxiety, leading to
psychological well-being.

38Q38. Aparna went to her college counsellor with her problem that was
causing her sleepless nights. Later, she realized that the counsellor had
shared the details with the staff of the college. Aparna's faith was completely
shaken, and she resolved never to trust any counsellor. Which one of the
following ethics has been breached by the counsellor?
1. Informed consent
2. Confidentiality of the client
3. Respect for human rights and dignity
4. Professional competence

The correct answer is Option 2. Confidentiality of the client

The counsellor violated the ethical principle of confidentiality, which
requires that all personal information shared by a client during counselling
sessions must be kept private. Sharing Aparna’s problem with college staff
without her permission breached her trust and the ethical duty of the
counsellor to protect client privacy. Confidentiality is fundamental to
maintaining a safe and trustworthy counselling relationship.

39Q39. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II
(A) Emotional unburdening
(I) Healing bond between therapist
and client
(B) Therapist variable
(II) Expectation of improvement due
to the treatment
(C) Patient variable
(III) Catharsis

(D) Therapeutic alliance
(IV) Absence of unresolved emotional
conflicts

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) - (II), (B) - (III), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
2. (A) - (III), (B) - (IV), (C) - (II), (D) - (I)
3. (A) - (IV), (B) - (III), (C) - (I), (D) - (II)
4. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)

The correct answer is Option 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (IV), (D) - (I)
• Emotional unburdening → Catharsis (III): Emotional unburdening
refers to releasing pent-up feelings, which is known as catharsis.
• Therapist variable → Expectation of improvement due to treatment
(II): The therapist’s competence, empathy, and positive attitude can
enhance the client’s expectation of improvement.
• Patient variable → Absence of unresolved emotional conflicts (IV): A
client’s readiness for therapy and emotional stability reflect patient-
related factors.
• Therapeutic alliance → Healing bond between therapist and client (I):
This refers to the trust and collaborative relationship that helps in the
healing process.

40Q40. Aslam, a 12-year-old, gets too tired by evening to complete his
homework. This is because he goes off for football training soon after school.
The school counsellor advised Aslam to reduce his football training time and
increase his weekend practice time. This way, Aslam will not be too tired and
will be able to complete his homework. Identify the antecedent operation:
1. Not completing his homework
2. Playing football after school
3. Reduce his football training time on weekdays
4. Completing his homework happily
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:-
The prisoners in the concentration camps in World War-II had lost faith in
the future. Being in the camp, I felt disgusted with the state of affairs and I
forced my thoughts to turn to another subject. "Suddenly, I saw myself
standing on the platform of a well - lit, warm and pleasant lecture room. In
front of me, the attentive audience were seated in comfortable upholstered
seats. I saw myself giving a lecture on hope, optimism, and resilience under
difficult circumstances." Suddenly, all that oppressed me stopped giving me
pain and distress. This practice was so impactful that I could succeed in
rising above the situation and the sufferings of the moment."

The correct answer is Option 2. Playing football after school
An antecedent operation refers to an event or activity that occurs before a
behavior and influences it. In this case, Aslam becomes too tired (which
affects his ability to complete homework) because he plays football after
school. This football practice happens before the problem behavior (not
completing homework), making it the antecedent operation.

41Q41. Which method has the writer used to rise above his sufferings in the
concentration camp?
1. Cognitive Behavioural Techniques
2. Creative Visualisation
3. Biofeedback

4. Relaxation Techniques

The correct answer is Option 2. Creative Visualisation

In the passage, the writer imagines himself standing in a pleasant lecture
hall, speaking about hope and resilience. He mentally transports himself
away from the painful reality of the concentration camp. This technique of
using imagination to create a positive mental picture and reduce present
suffering is known as Creative Visualisation.

42Q42. The prisoners in the concentration camps were in a state of despair that
caused them physical and mental 'wear and tear'. This state can best be
described by which term?
1. Eustress
2. Strain
3. Distress
4. Burnout

The correct answer is Option 3. Distress
The prisoners had lost hope, were suffering, and were emotionally and
physically exhausted. This type of negative, overwhelming stress that
causes harm to the mind and body is known as distress.
• Eustress refers to positive stress.
• Strain refers to the physical effect of stress.
• Burnout happens due to prolonged workplace stress.
Here, the prisoners' suffering clearly indicates distress.

43Q43. Choose the correct sequence of the method used by the author as a
stress management technique:
(A) One must set a realistic goal.
(B) Visualize when the mind is quiet, body is relaxed and eyes are closed.
(C) This will enable the creative energy to turn an imagined scene into
reality.
(D) This reduces the risk of interference from unbidden thoughts.
(E) This subjective experience will effectively reduce stress.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A), (C), (B), (E), (D)
2. (A). (B). (C), (D), (E)
3. (A), (D), (B), (C), (E)
4. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)

The correct answer is Option 4. (A), (B), (D), (C), (E)
The passage describes Creative Visualisation as a stress management
technique. The logical order of steps is:
• (A) First, set a realistic and meaningful goal to visualize.
• (B) Then, relax the body and mind and visualize with closed eyes.
• (D) Relaxation reduces unnecessary or distracting thoughts, ensuring
a clear mental picture.
• (C) This allows creative energy to transform imagination into a vivid
experience.
• (E) The positive subjective experience lowers stress and enhances
hope.

44Q44. Identify the correct fact/s related to the stress management technique
used by the author in the passage.
(A) Use of images and imagery to deal with stress.
(B) The yogic method of meditation for refocusing of attention.
(C) Procedure to monitor and reduce physiological aspects of stress by
providing feedback.
(D) Replacing negative and irrational thoughts with positive and rational
ones.

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) and (B) only
2. (A) only
3. (B) only
4. (B) and (D) only

The correct answer is Option 2. (A) only
In the passage, the author uses Creative Visualisation to cope with stress.
This involves using mental images and imagination to create a positive scene
- a method to mentally escape distressing realities and generate hope.
• (A) Use of images and imagery to deal with stress → Correct, as it
directly describes Creative Visualisation.
• (B) The yogic method of meditation → ❌ Not mentioned in the
passage.
• (C) Biofeedback → ❌ Involves monitoring physiological responses,
not mental imagery.
• (D) Cognitive Behavioural Techniques → ❌ Involves replacing
negative thoughts, which isn’t the method used here.

45Q45. The survivors of World War-II who were prisoners in the concentration
camps had the common personality trait which consists of 'the three Cs', i.e.
commitment, control and challenges. These traits are referred to as:
1. Self-esteem
2. Hardiness
3. Assertiveness
4. Rational thinking
Read the passage below and answer the questions that follow:-
Just as individuals compare themselves with others in terms of similarities
and differences with respect to what they have and what others have,
individuals also compare the group they belong to with groups of which
they are not a member. It has been found that groups are more likely to take
extreme decisions than individuals alone. Suppose there is an employee
who has been caught taking a bribe or engaging in some other unethical
act. His/her colleagues are asked to decide what punishment he/she should
be given. They may let him/her go scot-free or decide to terminate his/her
services instead of imposing a punishment which may commensurate with
the unethical act he/she had engaged in. Whatever the initial position in the
group, this position becomes much stronger as a result of discussions and
interaction in the group.

The correct answer is Option 2. Hardiness
The three traits - Commitment, Control, and Challenge - are the core
components of Hardiness, a personality characteristic identified by
psychologist Suzanne Kobasa.
People high in hardiness view stressful situations as opportunities for
growth rather than threats. This helps them remain resilient, optimistic, and
mentally strong even in extreme adversity, such as the experiences of World
War-II survivors.

46Q46. The strengthening of the group's initial position as a result of group
discussion and interaction is referred to as:
1. Group polarisation
2. Groupthink
3. Obedience
4. Social loafing

The correct answer is Option 1. Group polarisation
Group polarisation refers to the tendency of group members to make more
extreme decisions after group discussions than they would have made
individually.
When people with similar opinions discuss an issue, their views become
stronger and more extreme — either more positive or more negative. In the
passage, the group of employees takes an extreme decision after discussion,
which clearly illustrates group polarisation.

47Q47. When you find others also favouring your opinion against the employee,
who was caught taking a bribe, you feel that your view is being validated by
the public. This phenomenon is called:
1. Cohesiveness
2. Autokinetic effect
3. Compliance
4. Bandwagon effect

The correct answer is Option 4. Bandwagon effect
The Bandwagon effect refers to the tendency of people to adopt certain
beliefs, attitudes, or behaviours simply because others around them do so.
When an individual perceives that many others share their opinion, they
feel validated and become more confident in their stance.
In this case, when others in the group also favour punishing the employee,
you feel your opinion is socially supported, which strengthens your belief - a
classic example of the bandwagon effect.

48Q48. Identify the correct statements in reference to the influence of group on
individual behavior:
(A) Individuals are more likely to take extreme decisions than the group.
(B) When you find others favouring your opinion, you feel that your view is
being validated by the public
(C) When you find people having similar views, you are likely to perceive
them as in-group and as a consequence your views get strengthened.
(D) Groups are more likely to take extreme decisions than individuals alone.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) and (B) only
2. (B), (C) and (D) only
3. (A) and (C) only
4. (A), (B) and (C) only

The correct answer is Option 2. (B), (C) and (D) only
• (A) is incorrect because individuals alone are less likely to take
extreme decisions — groups tend to become more extreme after
discussion (group polarisation).
• (B) is correct — when others share your opinion, you feel validated,
which reflects the bandwagon effect.
• (C) is correct — when you identify people with similar views, you see
them as your in-group, and this strengthens your beliefs due to
shared identity.
• (D) is correct — groups tend to take more extreme decisions than
individuals due to group discussion and mutual reinforcement.
Hence, the correct combination is (B), (C), and (D)

49Q49. When you find others having views similar to yours, you are likely to
perceive them as:
1. Ingroup
2. Outgroup
3. Non-conformists
4. Friends

The correct answer is Option 1. Ingroup
An ingroup refers to a group of people with whom an individual identifies
or feels a sense of belonging. When you find others sharing similar

opinions, beliefs, or values, you naturally perceive them as part of your
ingroup.
This perception strengthens feelings of unity, trust, and agreement, while
those who hold opposing views are seen as part of the outgroup.

50Q50. Match List-I with List-II
List-I
List-II

(A) Members are viewed differently and are
often perceived negatively
(I) Group polarisation
(B) The strengthening of the group's initial
position as a result of group interaction and
discussion
(II) Cohesiveness
(C) Appearance of consensus or unanimous
agreement within a group
(III) Outgroup
(D) Team spirit or ‘we’ feeling or a sense of
belongingness to the group
(IV) Groupthink

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
1. (A) - (II), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (III)
2. (A) - (IV), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (III)
3. (A) - (III), (B) - (II), (C) - (I), (D) - (IV)
4. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

The correct answer is Option 4. (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)
• (A) Members are viewed differently and are often perceived negatively
→ (III) Outgroup: Members of the outgroup are usually seen as
different or inferior by the ingroup, often leading to bias or prejudice.
• (B) The strengthening of the group’s initial position as a result of
group interaction → (I) Group polarisation: This refers to how
discussions within a group lead to more extreme opinions or
decisions.
• (C) Appearance of consensus or unanimous agreement within a group
→ (IV) Groupthink: Groupthink occurs when the desire for harmony
or conformity leads to suppression of dissenting opinions and an
illusion of agreement.
• (D) Team spirit or ‘we’ feeling or sense of belonging → (II)
Cohesiveness: Cohesiveness describes the mutual attraction and unity
among group members.
Thus, the correct matching is: (A) - (III), (B) - (I), (C) - (IV), (D) - (II)

FAQs

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