SSC CGL 2026 Tier I Full Mock Test 1

1. Pointing to Rohan, Meena said, 'He is the son of my father's only son.' How is Rohan related to Meena?

• A. Brother
• B. Son
• C. Nephew (Correct)
• D. Cousin

Explanation: Meena's father's only son is Meena's brother. The son of her brother is Meena's nephew.

2. If P + Q means P is Q's mother and P - Q means P is Q's brother, then A + B - C means A is C's:

• A. Mother (Correct)
• B. Aunt
• C. Grandmother
• D. Sister

Explanation: A is mother of B, and B is brother of C, so A is also C's mother.

3. Statements: All pens are tools. Some tools are sharp. Conclusion: Some pens are sharp.

• A. Follows
• B. Does not follow (Correct)
• C. Either follows
• D. Both follow

Explanation: The sharp tools need not include any pen.

4. Five people A, B, C, D and E sit in a row facing north. B is immediately left of C. A is at the left end. D is immediately right of C. Who sits in the middle?

• A. B
• B. C (Correct)
• C. D
• D. E

Explanation: The order starts A, then B-C-D consecutively; C is in the middle position.

5. Four friends sit around a circular table facing centre. A is opposite C and B is to the immediate right of A. Who is opposite B?

• A. A
• B. C
• C. D (Correct)
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: With A opposite C, B on A's right leaves D opposite B.

6. P lives above Q but below R in a three-floor building. Who lives on the top floor?

• A. P
• B. Q
• C. R (Correct)
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: The order from bottom to top is Q, P, R.

7. If 1 January is Monday, what day will 8 January be?

• A. Monday (Correct)
• B. Tuesday
• C. Sunday
• D. Wednesday

Explanation: After 7 days, the same weekday repeats.

8. Find the angle between hour and minute hands at 3:00.

• A. 60°
• B. 75°
• C. 90° (Correct)
• D. 120°

Explanation: At 3:00, the hands are 3 hour marks apart. 3 x 30° = 90°.

9. Which Venn relation best represents Doctors, Engineers and Professionals?

• A. Doctors and Engineers inside Professionals (Correct)
• B. All separate
• C. Professionals inside Doctors
• D. Doctors inside Engineers

Explanation: Doctors and engineers are different groups, but both are professionals.

10. In a standard dice, which number is opposite to 1?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 5
• D. 6 (Correct)

Explanation: In a standard dice, opposite faces add to 7.

11. A cube has 6 faces, 12 edges and how many vertices?

• A. 6
• B. 8 (Correct)
• C. 10
• D. 12

Explanation: A cube has 8 vertices.

12. A vertical mirror is placed to the right of the word CAT. Which letter changes shape in the mirror image?

• A. C (Correct)
• B. A
• C. T
• D. None

Explanation: C reverses direction in a vertical mirror image.

13. In a vertical mirror, the left side of an object appears on the:

• A. Left
• B. Right (Correct)
• C. Top
• D. Bottom

Explanation: A vertical mirror reverses left and right.

14. A square paper is folded once vertically and punched at the centre of the folded edge. On opening, how many holes appear?

• A. 1
• B. 2 (Correct)
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: One fold creates two symmetric holes after opening.

15. A triangle hidden inside a larger star-like figure is an example of which question type?

• A. Mirror image
• B. Embedded figure (Correct)
• C. Calendar
• D. Syllogism

Explanation: The task asks to locate a simple figure hidden in a complex figure.

16. If a figure rotates 90 degrees clockwise in each step, after four steps it will be:

• A. Same as original (Correct)
• B. Opposite
• C. Mirror image
• D. Upside down only

Explanation: Four rotations of 90 degrees make a full 360-degree turn.

17. A water image mainly reverses an object in which direction?

• A. Left-right
• B. Top-bottom (Correct)
• C. Both always
• D. No reversal

Explanation: A water image is a vertical reflection, reversing top and bottom.

18. A paper folded twice and punched once can produce how many holes at most when opened?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 5

Explanation: Two folds can create four layers, so one punch can make four holes.

19. Finding the missing part that completes a symmetric pattern belongs to:

• A. Figure completion (Correct)
• B. Blood relation
• C. Profit loss
• D. Clock

Explanation: The question asks for completion of a visual pattern.

20. Which word comes first in dictionary order?

• A. Apply
• B. Apple
• C. Apex (Correct)
• D. April

Explanation: Apex comes before Apple, Apply and April alphabetically.

21. Find the missing number: 4, 9, 19, 39, 79, ?

• A. 149
• B. 159 (Correct)
• C. 169
• D. 179

Explanation: Each term is obtained by multiplying the previous term by 2 and adding 1: 4 x 2 + 1 = 9, so 79 x 2 + 1 = 159.

22. Find the next term: B, E, J, Q, ?

• A. X
• B. Y
• C. Z (Correct)
• D. W

Explanation: Letter positions are 2, 5, 10 and 17. Differences are 3, 5 and 7, so next difference is 9. 17 + 9 = 26, which is Z.

23. If MANGO is coded as NCQKT, then LEMON is coded as:

• A. MGPSS (Correct)
• B. MGPRT
• C. NGPRT
• D. MFQRT

Explanation: Letters are shifted by +1, +2, +3, +4 and +5 respectively. LEMON becomes M, G, P, S, S.

24. Find the next term: A1, C4, F9, J16, ?

• A. O25 (Correct)
• B. N25
• C. O24
• D. P25

Explanation: Letters move by +2, +3, +4, then +5. Numbers are squares 1, 4, 9, 16, 25.

25. If BOX is coded as 43048, then CUP is coded as:

• A. 63932
• B. 64232 (Correct)
• C. 63332
• D. 64130

Explanation: Each letter is coded as twice its alphabetical position: B=4, O=30, X=48. Hence C=6, U=42 and P=32.

26. Who founded the Maurya Empire?

• A. Ashoka
• B. Chandragupta Maurya (Correct)
• C. Harsha
• D. Bindusara

Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire.

27. Bharatanatyam is mainly associated with:

• A. Odisha
• B. Tamil Nadu (Correct)
• C. Kerala
• D. Punjab

Explanation: Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu.

28. The Sun Temple is located at:

• A. Konark (Correct)
• B. Khajuraho
• C. Hampi
• D. Madurai

Explanation: The famous Sun Temple is at Konark in Odisha.

29. 'Wings of Fire' is associated with:

• A. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (Correct)
• B. Vikram Sarabhai
• C. M. Visvesvaraya
• D. Homi Bhabha

Explanation: Wings of Fire is the autobiography of A. P. J. Abdul Kalam.

30. Article 32 is related to:

• A. Right to Equality
• B. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Correct)
• C. Right to Freedom of Religion
• D. Directive Principles

Explanation: Article 32 gives the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of rights.

31. RBI stands for:

• A. Reserve Bank of India (Correct)
• B. Revenue Bank of India
• C. Rural Bank of India
• D. Registered Bank of India

Explanation: RBI is India's central bank.

32. The longest river in India is generally taken as:

• A. Godavari
• B. Ganga (Correct)
• C. Yamuna
• D. Narmada

Explanation: In standard Indian GK usage, Ganga is treated as the longest river in India.

33. The powerhouse of the cell is:

• A. nucleus
• B. mitochondria (Correct)
• C. ribosome
• D. lysosome

Explanation: Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell.

34. The chemical symbol of gold is:

• A. Ag
• B. Au (Correct)
• C. Gd
• D. Go

Explanation: Gold has the symbol Au.

35. Plants prepare food by:

• A. respiration
• B. digestion
• C. photosynthesis (Correct)
• D. excretion

Explanation: Plants make food by photosynthesis.

36. The speed of light is greatest in:

• A. water
• B. glass
• C. vacuum (Correct)
• D. air only

Explanation: Light travels fastest in vacuum.

37. The Constitution of India came into force on:

• A. 26 January 1950 (Correct)
• B. 26 November 1949
• C. 2 October 1950
• D. 15 August 1947

Explanation: The correct answer is 26 January 1950.

38. The Battle of Plassey was fought in:

• A. 1757 (Correct)
• B. 1761
• C. 1857
• D. 1526

Explanation: The Battle of Plassey took place in 1757.

39. Kathak is a classical dance form of:

• A. North India (Correct)
• B. South India
• C. North-East India
• D. Western India

Explanation: Kathak evolved in North India.

40. The Taj Mahal was built by:

• A. Akbar
• B. Shah Jahan (Correct)
• C. Humayun
• D. Babur

Explanation: Shah Jahan built the Taj Mahal.

41. 'Anandamath' was written by:

• A. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (Correct)
• B. Rabindranath Tagore
• C. Premchand
• D. Sarat Chandra

Explanation: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandamath.

42. The Governor is the constitutional head of a:

• A. district
• B. state (Correct)
• C. municipality
• D. union territory always

Explanation: A Governor is the constitutional head of a state.

43. GST stands for:

• A. General Sales Tax
• B. Goods and Services Tax (Correct)
• C. Gross State Tax
• D. Government Service Tariff

Explanation: GST is the Goods and Services Tax system in India.

44. The desert located in western India is:

• A. Sahara
• B. Thar (Correct)
• C. Gobi
• D. Kalahari

Explanation: The Thar Desert lies in western India.

45. Vitamin C deficiency causes:

• A. rickets
• B. scurvy (Correct)
• C. night blindness
• D. goitre

Explanation: Scurvy is caused by deficiency of Vitamin C.

46. The gas used in fire extinguishers is often:

• A. oxygen
• B. carbon dioxide (Correct)
• C. hydrogen
• D. helium

Explanation: Carbon dioxide is commonly used in many fire extinguishers.

47. The SI unit of power is:

• A. joule
• B. watt (Correct)
• C. pascal
• D. newton

Explanation: Power is measured in watts.

48. The unit of electric power is:

• A. ampere
• B. watt (Correct)
• C. ohm
• D. newton

Explanation: Electric power is measured in watts.

49. Which gas is essential for respiration?

• A. Hydrogen
• B. Carbon dioxide
• C. Oxygen (Correct)
• D. Nitrogen

Explanation: The correct answer is Oxygen.

50. Who gave the slogan 'Do or Die'?

• A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• B. Mahatma Gandhi (Correct)
• C. Bhagat Singh
• D. Subhas Chandra Bose

Explanation: The slogan was given during the Quit India Movement.

51. The price of petrol rises by 25%, but a person wants his monthly petrol expense to rise by only 5%. By what percent should he reduce consumption?

• A. 12%
• B. 14%
• C. 16% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Let old price and consumption be 100 each. New expense target = 10500. New price = 125, so new consumption = 10500/125 = 84. Reduction = 16%.

52. After two successive discounts of 10% and 20%, an article is sold for Rs. 1,440. What was the marked price?

• A. Rs. 1,800
• B. Rs. 1,900
• C. Rs. 2,000 (Correct)
• D. Rs. 2,100

Explanation: Net selling factor = 0.9 x 0.8 = 0.72. Marked price = 1440/0.72 = 2000.

53. A is 40% more than B. If B is decreased by 20%, A becomes what percent more than the new value of B?

• A. 65%
• B. 70%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 80%

Explanation: Let B = 100, so A = 140. New B = 80. A is more by 60 on 80, so percent more = 75%.

54. A town's population increases by 12% in the first year and decreases by 10% in the second year. If the initial population was 50,000, find the final population.

• A. 49,800
• B. 50,400 (Correct)
• C. 50,800
• D. 51,200

Explanation: Final population = 50000 x 1.12 x 0.90 = 50400.

55. A candidate scored 32% marks and failed by 18 marks. If he had scored 38%, he would have passed by 12 marks. Find the maximum marks.

• A. 450
• B. 500 (Correct)
• C. 550
• D. 600

Explanation: Difference between 38% and 32% = 6%, which equals 30 marks. Therefore 100% = 30 x 100/6 = 500.

56. A salary is first increased by 20% and then by 25%. The new salary is Rs. 45,000. What was the original salary?

• A. Rs. 28,000
• B. Rs. 30,000 (Correct)
• C. Rs. 32,000
• D. Rs. 36,000

Explanation: Combined multiplier = 1.2 x 1.25 = 1.5. Original salary = 45000/1.5 = 30000.

57. The price of rice decreases by 20%. A family increases its consumption by 25%. What is the net change in expenditure?

• A. No change (Correct)
• B. 4% increase
• C. 5% decrease
• D. 10% increase

Explanation: Expense multiplier = 0.80 x 1.25 = 1, so expenditure is unchanged.

58. A 40 L solution contains 30% acid. How much water should be added to make acid concentration 24%?

• A. 8 L
• B. 10 L (Correct)
• C. 12 L
• D. 15 L

Explanation: Acid = 12 L. For 24% concentration, total solution = 12/0.24 = 50 L. Water added = 10 L.

59. In an election, 8% votes were invalid. A winner got 55% of the valid votes and won by 4,600 votes. If there were only two candidates, total votes polled were:

• A. 40,000
• B. 45,000
• C. 50,000 (Correct)
• D. 55,000

Explanation: Winner's lead = 10% of valid votes = 4600, so valid votes = 46000. Since valid votes are 92% of total, total = 46000/0.92 = 50000.

60. A number is decreased by 10% and then by 20%. What is the final value if the original number is 500?

• A. 350
• B. 360 (Correct)
• C. 370
• D. 380

Explanation: Final = 500 x 0.9 x 0.8 = 360.

61. A is 25% less than B. B is what percent more than A?

• A. 25%
• B. 30%
• C. 33.33% (Correct)
• D. 40%

Explanation: Let B = 100, A = 75. B is more than A by 25/75 x 100 = 33.33%.

62. In a school, 45% students are girls. If boys are 660, total students are:

• A. 1,100
• B. 1,200 (Correct)
• C. 1,300
• D. 1,400

Explanation: Boys are 55% of total. Total = 660 x 100/55 = 1200.

63. A value is first increased by x% and then decreased by x%. The final value is 96% of the original. Find x.

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20 (Correct)
• D. 25

Explanation: Net factor = 1 - x^2/10000 = 0.96. Hence x^2/100 = 4, so x = 20.

64. A person spends 35% of income on rent, 25% of the remaining on food and saves Rs. 19,500. Find income.

• A. Rs. 36,000
• B. Rs. 38,000
• C. Rs. 40,000 (Correct)
• D. Rs. 42,000

Explanation: After rent, 65% remains. After food, 75% of 65% = 48.75% remains. Income = 19500/0.4875 = 40000.

65. In a test, correct answers give 2 marks and wrong answers deduct 0.5 mark. A candidate attempts 80 questions and scores 125 marks. How many answers were correct?

• A. 64
• B. 66 (Correct)
• C. 68
• D. 70

Explanation: Let correct answers be c. Wrong = 80-c. Score = 2c - 0.5(80-c) = 125. Thus 2.5c = 165, so c = 66.

66. 25% of 200 is:

• A. 25
• B. 40
• C. 50 (Correct)
• D. 60

Explanation: 25% = 1/4, so 1/4 of 200 is 50.

67. A number is increased by 20%. If it becomes 120, the original number was:

• A. 90
• B. 95
• C. 100 (Correct)
• D. 110

Explanation: 120% corresponds to 120, so 100% is 100.

68. A price is reduced from 500 to 450. The percentage decrease is:

• A. 5%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease = 50, so percentage decrease = 50/500 × 100 = 10%.

69. A number is increased by 10% and then by 20%. The net increase is:

• A. 28%
• B. 30%
• C. 32% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: Take 100 → 110 → 132, so net increase is 32%.

70. A student secures 180 marks out of 240. His percentage is:

• A. 70%
• B. 72%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 80%

Explanation: 180/240 × 100 = 75%.

71. If A is 25% more than B, then B is less than A by:

• A. 20% (Correct)
• B. 25%
• C. 30%
• D. 33.33%

Explanation: If B = 100, A = 125. So B is 25 less than 125, i.e. 20% less than A.

72. 12.5% is equal to:

• A. 1/2
• B. 1/4
• C. 1/8 (Correct)
• D. 1/16

Explanation: 12.5% = 12.5/100 = 1/8.

73. A number is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. The net effect is:

• A. 0% (Correct)
• B. 5% increase
• C. 5% decrease
• D. 10% decrease

Explanation: 100 → 125 → 100, so net effect is zero.

74. If the cost price is 400 and profit is 80, profit percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 15%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: 80/400 × 100 = 20%.

75. In an exam, a student gets 36% and fails by 8 marks, while another gets 44% and passes by 8 marks. Maximum marks are:

• A. 150
• B. 160
• C. 175
• D. 200 (Correct)

Explanation: Difference in percentage = 8%, difference in marks = 16. So 100% = 16/8 × 100 = 200.

76. Choose the correct article: She adopted _____ honest approach.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Honest begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is used.

77. He is good _____ mathematics.

• A. in
• B. at (Correct)
• C. for
• D. with

Explanation: The correct collocation is 'good at mathematics'.

78. Either the principal or the teachers _____ attending the meeting.

• A. is
• B. was
• C. are (Correct)
• D. has

Explanation: With 'either...or', the verb agrees with the nearer subject, which is 'teachers'.

79. By next month, she _____ the project.

• A. completes
• B. completed
• C. will complete
• D. will have completed (Correct)

Explanation: The future perfect is used for an action completed before a future point.

80. He said, 'I can solve this problem.' The indirect form is:

• A. He said that he can solve that problem.
• B. He said that he could solve that problem. (Correct)
• C. He said he solve that problem.
• D. He says that he could solve this problem.

Explanation: In indirect speech, 'can' changes to 'could' after a past reporting verb.

81. Choose the passive form: The committee will announce the result tomorrow.

• A. The result will announce tomorrow.
• B. The result will be announced tomorrow. (Correct)
• C. Tomorrow the result announced.
• D. The result is announced tomorrow.

Explanation: Future passive takes 'will be' plus past participle.

82. Identify the error: Each of the boys have submitted the form.

• A. Each
• B. of the boys
• C. have submitted (Correct)
• D. the form

Explanation: 'Each' takes a singular verb, so 'has submitted' is correct.

83. He was tired, _____ he continued working.

• A. because
• B. but (Correct)
• C. unless
• D. since

Explanation: The sentence shows contrast, so 'but' is appropriate.

84. Choose the best replacement: She is senior than me.

• A. senior from me
• B. senior to me (Correct)
• C. senior over me
• D. no improvement

Explanation: The adjective 'senior' takes 'to', not 'than'.

85. You _____ obey the traffic rules.

• A. should (Correct)
• B. might be
• C. used
• D. dare to

Explanation: 'Should' best expresses advice or obligation here.

86. Let's go for a walk, _____?

• A. shall we (Correct)
• B. will we
• C. don't we
• D. do we

Explanation: The standard tag after 'Let's' is 'shall we?'.

87. If he had studied harder, he _____ the exam.

• A. passes
• B. will pass
• C. would have passed (Correct)
• D. would pass

Explanation: This is a third conditional structure.

88. She enjoys _____ classical music.

• A. to listen
• B. listened
• C. listening to (Correct)
• D. listen

Explanation: 'Enjoy' is followed by a gerund.

89. Neither of the two sisters brought _____ notebook.

• A. their
• B. her (Correct)
• C. our
• D. his

Explanation: 'Neither' is singular, so the singular pronoun 'her' is used.

90. He completed the task _____ than expected.

• A. more quick
• B. quick
• C. more quickly (Correct)
• D. quicklier

Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify 'completed'.

91. Choose the correctly written sentence.

• A. Walking down the road, the trees looked beautiful.
• B. Walking down the road, I found the trees beautiful. (Correct)
• C. Walking down the road, the flowers was blooming.
• D. Walking down the road, the weather pleased.

Explanation: The doer in the opening phrase must match the subject that follows.

92. Mount Everest is _____ peak in the world.

• A. high
• B. higher
• C. the highest (Correct)
• D. most high

Explanation: A superlative is required.

93. He is _____ honest officer.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Honest begins with a vowel sound.

94. Swimming is good for health. The underlined word functions as a:

• A. noun (Correct)
• B. adjective
• C. adverb
• D. preposition

Explanation: A gerund acts as a noun.

95. Choose the best word: The report was rejected because it was not _____ with the prescribed format.

• A. complied
• B. consistent (Correct)
• C. insisting
• D. dependent

Explanation: 'Consistent with' means in agreement with a standard or format.

96. 'At the eleventh hour' means:

• A. very early
• B. at the last moment (Correct)
• C. in a hurry
• D. every hour

Explanation: The phrase refers to something done just before the deadline.

97. 'Call it a day' means:

• A. begin a task
• B. stop working for the day (Correct)
• C. phone someone
• D. name the date

Explanation: The phrase means to end the day's activity.

98. A passage that mainly explains facts in a direct way is usually:

• A. narrative
• B. expository (Correct)
• C. poetic
• D. dramatic

Explanation: Expository writing is used to inform and explain.

99. The main idea of a paragraph is the:

• A. least important detail
• B. central point being discussed (Correct)
• C. first difficult word
• D. last sentence only

Explanation: The main idea is the author's primary message.

100. If a passage says a road was deserted and shops were shut, it can be inferred that the area was:

• A. crowded
• B. busy
• C. quiet (Correct)
• D. noisy

Explanation: Those details suggest a silent and inactive place.