SSC CGL 2026 Tier I Full Mock Test 2

1. A is B's sister. C is B's father. D is C's mother. How is D related to A?

• A. Mother
• B. Grandmother (Correct)
• C. Aunt
• D. Sister

Explanation: A and B are siblings. C is their father, and D is C's mother, so D is A's grandmother.

2. If A * B means A is B's father and A # B means A is B's sister, then M * N # O means M is O's:

• A. Father (Correct)
• B. Brother
• C. Uncle
• D. Grandfather

Explanation: M is father of N, and N is sister of O. Therefore M is O's father.

3. Statements: All books are papers. All papers are materials. Conclusion: All books are materials.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. Cannot say
• D. None

Explanation: The chain relation gives all books as materials.

4. P, Q, R, S sit in a row. Q is not at an end. P is left of Q. R is right of S. If S is at the left end, who is second from left?

• A. P (Correct)
• B. Q
• C. R
• D. S

Explanation: S is first. Since R is right of S and P is left of Q, the possible order is S-P-Q-R.

5. In a circle facing centre, X sits immediately left of Y. Z sits opposite Y. Who is immediately right of X if four people sit?

• A. Y
• B. Z
• C. W (Correct)
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: With four people, if X is left of Y, the remaining adjacent on X's other side is W.

6. In a four-floor building, A lives above B, C lives below B, and D lives above A. Who lives on the top floor?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D (Correct)

Explanation: The order from bottom to top is C, B, A, D.

7. How many odd days are there in a normal year?

• A. 0
• B. 1 (Correct)
• C. 2
• D. 3

Explanation: 365 days = 52 weeks + 1 odd day.

8. Find the angle between hands at 6:00.

• A. 90°
• B. 120°
• C. 150°
• D. 180° (Correct)

Explanation: At 6:00, the hands are opposite.

9. Which relation represents Mango, Fruit and Vegetable?

• A. Mango inside Fruit, Vegetable separate (Correct)
• B. Fruit inside Mango
• C. All same
• D. Mango inside Vegetable

Explanation: Mango is a fruit and not a vegetable.

10. In a standard dice, which number is opposite to 3?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 6

Explanation: Opposite faces add to 7, so 3 is opposite 4.

11. A cube is painted on all faces and cut into 27 equal small cubes. How many small cubes have three painted faces?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 12

Explanation: Only corner cubes have three painted faces, and a cube has 8 corners.

12. If a shape sequence alternates circle, square, triangle, circle, square, then the next shape is:

• A. Circle
• B. Square
• C. Triangle (Correct)
• D. Rectangle

Explanation: The sequence repeats in the order circle, square, triangle.

13. In a plane mirror, the image of an object is generally:

• A. Laterally inverted (Correct)
• B. Smaller always
• C. Larger always
• D. Rotated by 90 degrees

Explanation: Plane mirrors produce lateral inversion.

14. A square paper is folded horizontally and then vertically. One hole is punched through all layers. How many holes appear after unfolding?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 8

Explanation: Two folds create four layers, so one punch gives four symmetric holes.

15. Finding a square hidden inside a complex design is a question of:

• A. Embedded figure (Correct)
• B. Clock
• C. Calendar
• D. Ranking

Explanation: Embedded figure questions ask the student to locate a simple shape inside a complex one.

16. A shape sequence is star, circle, star, circle, star. The next shape is:

• A. Star
• B. Circle (Correct)
• C. Triangle
• D. Square

Explanation: The pattern alternates star and circle.

17. In a water image, the top of the object appears at the:

• A. Top
• B. Bottom (Correct)
• C. Left
• D. Right

Explanation: A water image reverses the object vertically.

18. Arrange in dictionary order: Cat, Cap, Can, Car. Which comes second?

• A. Can
• B. Cap (Correct)
• C. Car
• D. Cat

Explanation: Order is Can, Cap, Car, Cat.

19. Find the next number: 3, 10, 29, 66, 127, ?

• A. 198
• B. 208
• C. 218 (Correct)
• D. 228

Explanation: Differences are 7, 19, 37 and 61. Their differences are 12, 18 and 24, so next difference is 30 and next main difference is 91. Hence 127 + 91 = 218.

20. Find the missing term: AZ, CX, EV, GT, ?

• A. IR (Correct)
• B. HS
• C. JQ
• D. KR

Explanation: First letters move A, C, E, G, I by +2. Second letters move Z, X, V, T, R by -2.

21. If DUST is coded as FWUV, then RAIN is coded as:

• A. TCKP (Correct)
• B. SCKP
• C. TCLP
• D. UBKP

Explanation: Each letter is shifted two places ahead: R->T, A->C, I->K, N->P.

22. If + means x, - means +, x means / and / means -, then 18 x 3 + 4 - 7 equals:

• A. 24
• B. 28
• C. 31 (Correct)
• D. 35

Explanation: Replace the signs: 18 / 3 x 4 + 7. Using BODMAS, 18 / 3 = 6, 6 x 4 = 24, and 24 + 7 = 31.

23. If the letters of the word MARKET are arranged in reverse order and each consonant is replaced by the next letter, what will be the first letter of the new code?

• A. U (Correct)
• B. T
• C. S
• D. R

Explanation: MARKET reversed is TEKRAM. The first letter T is a consonant, so it becomes U.

24. Find the next term: C3, F8, J15, O24, ?

• A. U35 (Correct)
• B. T34
• C. U34
• D. V35

Explanation: Letter gaps are +3, +4, +5, then +6, so O becomes U. Number differences are 5, 7, 9, then 11, so 24 becomes 35.

25. Pen : Write :: Knife : ?

• A. Cut (Correct)
• B. Cook
• C. Measure
• D. Paint

Explanation: A pen is used to write, and a knife is used to cut.

26. Who was known as the Iron Man of India?

• A. Jawaharlal Nehru
• B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (Correct)
• C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
• D. Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: Sardar Patel is called the Iron Man of India.

27. Odissi dance is associated with:

• A. Odisha (Correct)
• B. Assam
• C. Bihar
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: Odissi is the classical dance form of Odisha.

28. Hampi is located in:

• A. Kerala
• B. Tamil Nadu
• C. Karnataka (Correct)
• D. Maharashtra

Explanation: Hampi is a historic site in Karnataka.

29. 'Vande Mataram' was written by:

• A. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (Correct)
• B. Rabindranath Tagore
• C. Sarojini Naidu
• D. Subramania Bharati

Explanation: The song appears in Anandamath.

30. The tenure of Lok Sabha is normally:

• A. 4 years
• B. 5 years (Correct)
• C. 6 years
• D. 7 years

Explanation: The normal tenure of Lok Sabha is five years.

31. NITI Aayog replaced the:

• A. Finance Commission
• B. Planning Commission (Correct)
• C. Election Commission
• D. UPSC

Explanation: NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission.

32. The largest ocean on Earth is:

• A. Atlantic
• B. Indian
• C. Pacific (Correct)
• D. Arctic

Explanation: The Pacific Ocean is the largest.

33. The human heart has _____ chambers.

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 5

Explanation: The heart has four chambers.

34. Water boils at standard atmospheric pressure at:

• A. 90 C
• B. 95 C
• C. 100 C (Correct)
• D. 110 C

Explanation: Water boils at 100 C under standard pressure.

35. The ozone layer protects us from:

• A. infrared rays
• B. ultraviolet rays (Correct)
• C. radio waves
• D. sound waves

Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation.

36. Sound cannot travel through:

• A. air
• B. water
• C. steel
• D. vacuum (Correct)

Explanation: Sound needs a material medium to travel.

37. The chemical symbol of potassium is:

• A. Pt
• B. Po
• C. P
• D. K (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is K.

38. The Quit India Movement started in:

• A. 1940
• B. 1942 (Correct)
• C. 1944
• D. 1946

Explanation: The movement was launched in August 1942.

39. Bihu is mainly celebrated in:

• A. Assam (Correct)
• B. Tripura
• C. Nagaland
• D. Sikkim

Explanation: Bihu is the major festival of Assam.

40. Qutub Minar is located in:

• A. Agra
• B. Delhi (Correct)
• C. Lucknow
• D. Jaipur

Explanation: Qutub Minar is in Delhi.

41. 'Gitanjali' is associated with:

• A. Rabindranath Tagore (Correct)
• B. Premchand
• C. Nehru
• D. Bankim Chandra

Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore wrote Gitanjali.

42. The Right to Equality is contained in Articles:

• A. 12 to 35
• B. 14 to 18 (Correct)
• C. 19 to 22
• D. 23 to 24

Explanation: Articles 14 to 18 cover the Right to Equality.

43. Inflation refers to a sustained rise in the:

• A. general price level (Correct)
• B. tax rate only
• C. exports only
• D. population level

Explanation: Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level.

44. The river known as Dakshin Ganga is:

• A. Krishna
• B. Godavari (Correct)
• C. Cauvery
• D. Mahanadi

Explanation: Godavari is often called Dakshin Ganga.

45. The study of heredity is called:

• A. geology
• B. genetics (Correct)
• C. optics
• D. ecology

Explanation: Genetics deals with heredity.

46. Bauxite is an ore of:

• A. iron
• B. copper
• C. aluminium (Correct)
• D. silver

Explanation: Bauxite is the chief ore of aluminium.

47. Mercury is the only common metal that is liquid at:

• A. high pressure
• B. room temperature (Correct)
• C. low temperature only
• D. boiling point

Explanation: Mercury is liquid at room temperature.

48. A battery converts _____ energy into electrical energy.

• A. light
• B. sound
• C. chemical (Correct)
• D. heat

Explanation: A battery converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

49. The largest state of India by area is:

• A. Uttar Pradesh
• B. Madhya Pradesh
• C. Rajasthan (Correct)
• D. Maharashtra

Explanation: The correct answer is Rajasthan.

50. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?

• A. Lord Mountbatten (Correct)
• B. C. Rajagopalachari
• C. Warren Hastings
• D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Mountbatten served as the first Governor-General after independence.

51. After a 25% increase, a salary becomes 25,000. Original salary was:

• A. 18,000
• B. 19,000
• C. 20,000 (Correct)
• D. 21,000

Explanation: 125% = 25,000, so 100% = 20,000.

52. If x is 40% of y, then y is what percent of x?

• A. 150%
• B. 200%
• C. 250% (Correct)
• D. 300%

Explanation: If x = 40 and y = 100, then y/x × 100 = 250%.

53. If a town population increases from 80,000 to 88,000, the increase percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Increase = 8,000, so 8,000/80,000 × 100 = 10%.

54. A student scores 360 marks out of 500. Percentage is:

• A. 62%
• B. 68%
• C. 72% (Correct)
• D. 78%

Explanation: 360/500 × 100 = 72%.

55. Salary of a worker increases by 20% and then decreases by 20%. Net change:

• A. No change
• B. 4% decrease (Correct)
• C. 4% increase
• D. 2% decrease

Explanation: 1.2 × 0.8 = 0.96 → 4% decrease.

56. Income increases by 20% and expenditure by 10%. If savings become 35% more, the original expenditure was what percent of income?

• A. 50%
• B. 60% (Correct)
• C. 70%
• D. 80%

Explanation: Let income = 100 and expenditure = x. Savings = 100 - x. New savings = 120 - 1.1x = 1.35(100 - x). Solving: 120 - 1.1x = 135 - 1.35x, so 0.25x = 15, giving x = 60.

57. 40% of 250 is:

• A. 80
• B. 90
• C. 100 (Correct)
• D. 110

Explanation: 40% of 250 = 100.

58. A quantity increases from 80 to 100. The percentage increase is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 40%

Explanation: Increase = 20 on base 80, so 20/80 x 100 = 25%.

59. A price falls from 500 to 450. The percentage decrease is:

• A. 5%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease = 50 on base 500, so 10%.

60. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. Net change is:

• A. No change
• B. 4% decrease (Correct)
• C. 4% increase
• D. 8% decrease

Explanation: 1.2 x 0.8 = 0.96, so net 4% decrease.

61. A student scores 180 out of 240. The percentage is:

• A. 70%
• B. 75% (Correct)
• C. 80%
• D. 85%

Explanation: 180/240 x 100 = 75%.

62. If A is 25% more than B, then B is what percent less than A?

• A. 20% (Correct)
• B. 25%
• C. 30%
• D. 33 1/3%

Explanation: If A = 125 and B = 100, B is 25 less than 125, i.e. 20%.

63. Passing marks are 40% of 500. A student scores 176. He fails by:

• A. 12
• B. 16
• C. 20
• D. 24 (Correct)

Explanation: Passing marks = 200, so shortfall = 24.

64. A value is decreased by 20% and then by 10%. Net decrease is:

• A. 28% (Correct)
• B. 30%
• C. 32%
• D. 35%

Explanation: 100 → 80 → 72, so net decrease is 28%.

65. Water in a solution is 30%. In 200 litres solution, water is:

• A. 40 litres
• B. 50 litres
• C. 60 litres (Correct)
• D. 70 litres

Explanation: 30% of 200 = 60 litres.

66. If a person saves 25% of income, expenditure percent is:

• A. 65%
• B. 70%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 80%

Explanation: Expenditure = 100% - 25% = 75%.

67. A value increases from 80 to 100. The increase percent is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 40%

Explanation: Increase is 20 on base 80, so 20/80 x 100 = 25%.

68. A number drops from 500 to 425. Decrease percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 12%
• C. 15% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Decrease is 75 on base 500, so 15%.

69. An article bought for Rs. 800 is sold for Rs. 920. Profit percent is:

• A. 12%
• B. 15% (Correct)
• C. 18%
• D. 20%

Explanation: Profit = 120 on cost price 800, so 15%.

70. Marked price is Rs. 1500 and selling price is Rs. 1275. Discount percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 12%
• C. 15% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Discount = 225, so 225/1500 x 100 = 15%.

71. In a class of 80 students, 60% are girls. Number of boys is:

• A. 24
• B. 28
• C. 30
• D. 32 (Correct)

Explanation: Girls = 48, so boys = 32.

72. 7/20 as a percent is:

• A. 30%
• B. 35% (Correct)
• C. 40%
• D. 45%

Explanation: 7/20 x 100 = 35%.

73. Marked price 2000 with 10% discount gives selling price:

• A. 1700
• B. 1750
• C. 1800 (Correct)
• D. 1850

Explanation: 10% of 2000 is 200.

74. If boys:girls = 4:1 in a class, percentage of girls is:

• A. 10%
• B. 15%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Girls are 1 out of total 5 parts.

75. What is 15% of 480?

• A. 60
• B. 66
• C. 72 (Correct)
• D. 78

Explanation: 480 × 15/100 = 72.

76. He wants to become _____ engineer.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Engineer begins with a vowel sound.

77. The train arrived _____ time.

• A. in
• B. on (Correct)
• C. at
• D. for

Explanation: The expression is 'on time'.

78. The quality of the apples _____ not good.

• A. are
• B. were
• C. is (Correct)
• D. have

Explanation: The subject is 'quality', which is singular.

79. When I reached the station, the train _____.

• A. left
• B. has left
• C. had left (Correct)
• D. was leaving always

Explanation: Past perfect shows the earlier past action.

80. She said, 'I have finished my work.' The indirect form is:

• A. She said that she had finished her work. (Correct)
• B. She said that she has finished her work.
• C. She says that she had finished her work.
• D. She told that she had finished my work.

Explanation: Present perfect changes to past perfect in reported speech after a past reporting verb.

81. Choose the active form: The match was won by the visitors.

• A. The visitors have won the match.
• B. The visitors won the match. (Correct)
• C. The match won the visitors.
• D. The visitors were winning the match.

Explanation: Simple past passive converts to simple past active.

82. Identify the error: One of my friends are preparing for SSC CGL.

• A. One
• B. of my friends
• C. are preparing (Correct)
• D. for SSC CGL

Explanation: 'One' is singular, so 'is preparing' is correct.

83. You will succeed _____ you stay focused.

• A. unless
• B. if (Correct)
• C. though
• D. whereas

Explanation: 'If' correctly introduces the condition.

84. Choose the best replacement: He insisted to pay the bill.

• A. insisted on paying (Correct)
• B. insisted for paying
• C. insisted paying to
• D. no improvement

Explanation: The correct construction is 'insist on' followed by a gerund.

85. You _____ wear a helmet while riding.

• A. should (Correct)
• B. might
• C. used to
• D. can be

Explanation: 'Should' expresses advice or obligation.

86. She is your cousin, _____?

• A. isn't she (Correct)
• B. doesn't she
• C. wasn't she
• D. is she

Explanation: The auxiliary 'is' becomes negative in the tag.

87. If I were the manager, I _____ the policy.

• A. change
• B. changed
• C. would change (Correct)
• D. will change

Explanation: This is a second conditional sentence.

88. He made me _____ the letter twice.

• A. to read
• B. reading
• C. read (Correct)
• D. reads

Explanation: 'Make' is followed by the base verb in active voice.

89. Everyone should finish _____ assignment before lunch.

• A. their
• B. his or her (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Formal singular agreement with 'everyone' takes 'his or her'.

90. He spoke so _____ that everyone understood him.

• A. clear
• B. clearly (Correct)
• C. more clear
• D. clearest

Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify 'spoke'.

91. This is the _____ building in the area.

• A. taller
• B. tall
• C. tallest (Correct)
• D. more tall

Explanation: The superlative is needed for comparison among many.

92. He bought _____ umbrella yesterday.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Umbrella begins with a vowel sound.

93. He enjoys _____ books.

• A. read
• B. reading (Correct)
• C. to read
• D. reads

Explanation: 'Enjoy' is followed by a gerund.

94. 'A piece of cake' means:

• A. a bakery item
• B. very difficult
• C. very easy (Correct)
• D. half done

Explanation: The idiom means something simple to do.

95. 'Burn the midnight oil' means:

• A. work late into the night (Correct)
• B. waste fuel
• C. celebrate at night
• D. sleep early

Explanation: It refers to studying or working very late.

96. A paragraph describing a village fair with colours and sounds is likely to be:

• A. descriptive (Correct)
• B. legal
• C. statistical
• D. technical

Explanation: Descriptive writing focuses on sensory details.

97. Details in a paragraph should support the:

• A. author's signature
• B. main idea (Correct)
• C. margin width
• D. first noun only

Explanation: Supporting details explain or strengthen the central message.

98. If an author describes a plan as ambitious but unrealistic, the implied attitude is:

• A. full approval
• B. cautious doubt (Correct)
• C. complete excitement
• D. indifference

Explanation: The author seems skeptical while still recognizing ambition.

99. In comprehension, the meaning of a difficult word is often understood by using:

• A. random guess only
• B. context clues (Correct)
• C. rhyming words
• D. alphabetical order

Explanation: Nearby ideas and sentence logic often reveal meaning.

100. A suitable title for a passage should be:

• A. unrelated but catchy
• B. too long and detailed
• C. closely connected to the main idea (Correct)
• D. just one random word

Explanation: The best title reflects the central theme.