SSC CGL 2026 Tier I Full Mock Test 3

1. A father's brother is called:

• A. Nephew
• B. Uncle (Correct)
• C. Cousin
• D. Grandfather

Explanation: Father's brother is paternal uncle.

2. If A @ B means A is B's wife and A # B means A is B's son, then P # Q @ R means P is R's:

• A. Son (Correct)
• B. Brother
• C. Father
• D. Uncle

Explanation: Q is wife of R, and P is son of Q. Therefore P is R's son.

3. Statements: No cup is plate. Some plates are bowls. Conclusion: Some bowls are not cups.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. May follow
• D. Either

Explanation: The bowls that are plates cannot be cups.

4. Six people sit in a row. M is third from the left and N is second from the right. How many people sit between M and N?

• A. 0
• B. 1 (Correct)
• C. 2
• D. 3

Explanation: In six places, M is position 3 and N is position 5, so one person sits between them.

5. Five people sit around a circular table facing centre. P is immediate left of Q and R is immediate right of Q. Who are Q's neighbours?

• A. P and R (Correct)
• B. P and S
• C. R and T
• D. S and T

Explanation: The immediate left and immediate right of Q are P and R.

6. How many odd days are there in a leap year?

• A. 1
• B. 2 (Correct)
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 odd days.

7. At 2:30, the angle between the hands is:

• A. 95°
• B. 100°
• C. 105° (Correct)
• D. 110°

Explanation: Hour hand is at 75° and minute hand at 180°. Difference = 105°.

8. Which relation represents Women, Mothers and Teachers?

• A. Mothers inside Women; Teachers may overlap Women (Correct)
• B. All separate
• C. Teachers inside Mothers
• D. Women inside Mothers

Explanation: All mothers are women, while teachers can be men or women.

9. If 2 is opposite 5 and 3 is opposite 4 on a dice, which number is opposite 1?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 6 (Correct)

Explanation: The remaining pair is 1 and 6.

10. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 64 equal cubes. How many small cubes have no painted face?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 12

Explanation: For 4 x 4 x 4 cutting, inner unpainted cubes = (4-2)^3 = 8.

11. A vertical mirror image of the digit 3 most closely looks like:

• A. Reversed 3 (Correct)
• B. Same 3
• C. Upside-down 3
• D. 0

Explanation: A vertical mirror reverses the left-right direction of the digit.

12. If the letters of TABLE are arranged alphabetically, which letter is third?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. E (Correct)
• D. L

Explanation: Alphabetical order is A, B, E, L, T.

13. Find the next number: 2, 6, 12, 20, 30, ?

• A. 40
• B. 42 (Correct)
• C. 44
• D. 46

Explanation: The differences are 4, 6, 8 and 10, so the next difference is 12. Hence 30 + 12 = 42.

14. Find the next term: A, C, E, G, ?

• A. H
• B. I (Correct)
• C. J
• D. K

Explanation: The letters move by two positions each time.

15. In a certain code, TABLE is written as GZYOV. How is CHAIR written in the same code?

• A. XSZRI (Correct)
• B. XSRZI
• C. WUZRI
• D. XSZIR

Explanation: The code uses opposite letters: T->G, A->Z, B->Y, L->O, E->V. Therefore C->X, H->S, A->Z, I->R, R->I.

16. If A # B means A + 2B and A @ B means 3A - B, then (6 # 4) @ 5 equals:

• A. 35
• B. 37 (Correct)
• C. 39
• D. 41

Explanation: 6 # 4 = 6 + 8 = 14. Then 14 @ 5 = 3 x 14 - 5 = 37.

17. Find the next term: 1A, 2C, 3E, 4G, ?

• A. 5H
• B. 5I (Correct)
• C. 6I
• D. 6J

Explanation: Numbers increase by one and letters by two positions.

18. Thermometer : Temperature :: Barometer : ?

• A. Pressure (Correct)
• B. Humidity
• C. Speed
• D. Rainfall

Explanation: A thermometer measures temperature, and a barometer measures atmospheric pressure.

19. 9 : 82 :: 13 : ?

• A. 168
• B. 169
• C. 170 (Correct)
• D. 172

Explanation: The relation is n^2 + 1. 9^2 + 1 = 82, and 13^2 + 1 = 170.

20. ACE : FHJ :: BDF : ?

• A. GIK (Correct)
• B. GJL
• C. HIK
• D. GIL

Explanation: Each letter is shifted five positions ahead: A->F, C->H, E->J.

21. Choose the odd one out: Square, Rectangle, Triangle, Cube.

• A. Square
• B. Rectangle
• C. Triangle
• D. Cube (Correct)

Explanation: Cube is a three-dimensional solid, while the others are two-dimensional figures.

22. Choose the odd pair.

• A. 6-36
• B. 8-64
• C. 9-81
• D. 11-132 (Correct)

Explanation: In the first three pairs, the second number is the square of the first. 11^2 is 121, not 132.

23. MNP : QRT :: HJL : ?

• A. LNP (Correct)
• B. LMO
• C. MOP
• D. KMO

Explanation: Each letter is shifted four places ahead: H->L, J->N, L->P.

24. Choose the odd one out: January, March, May, Monday.

• A. January
• B. March
• C. May
• D. Monday (Correct)

Explanation: Monday is a day of the week, while the others are months.

25. Author : Novel :: Sculptor : ?

• A. Statue (Correct)
• B. Brush
• C. Stage
• D. Song

Explanation: An author creates a novel, and a sculptor creates a statue.

26. Who founded the Mughal Empire in India?

• A. Akbar
• B. Humayun
• C. Babur (Correct)
• D. Sher Shah

Explanation: Babur founded the Mughal Empire after the First Battle of Panipat.

27. Garba is a dance form associated with:

• A. Gujarat (Correct)
• B. Maharashtra
• C. Punjab
• D. Uttarakhand

Explanation: Garba is the popular folk dance of Gujarat.

28. The Brihadeeswara Temple is located in:

• A. Madurai
• B. Thanjavur (Correct)
• C. Mysuru
• D. Puri

Explanation: The temple is a Chola architectural landmark in Thanjavur.

29. 'My Experiments with Truth' is associated with:

• A. Mahatma Gandhi (Correct)
• B. Subhas Bose
• C. Tagore
• D. Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: It is Gandhi's autobiography.

30. The constitutional amendment related to Panchayati Raj is:

• A. 42nd
• B. 44th
• C. 73rd (Correct)
• D. 74th

Explanation: The 73rd Amendment constitutionalised Panchayati Raj institutions.

31. Which institution issues currency notes in India except one-rupee note?

• A. Finance Ministry
• B. RBI (Correct)
• C. SEBI
• D. NABARD

Explanation: RBI issues currency notes except the one-rupee note.

32. The capital of Assam is:

• A. Dispur (Correct)
• B. Guwahati
• C. Shillong
• D. Agartala

Explanation: Dispur is the capital of Assam.

33. Blood group known as universal donor is:

• A. A positive
• B. AB positive
• C. O negative (Correct)
• D. B negative

Explanation: O negative is commonly called the universal donor.

34. The pH value of pure water is:

• A. 5
• B. 6
• C. 7 (Correct)
• D. 8

Explanation: Pure water is neutral with pH 7.

35. The SI unit of temperature is:

• A. Celsius
• B. Kelvin (Correct)
• C. Fahrenheit
• D. Joule

Explanation: Kelvin is the SI unit of temperature.

36. A device used to measure electric current is:

• A. voltmeter
• B. ammeter (Correct)
• C. barometer
• D. thermometer

Explanation: Current is measured using an ammeter.

37. The upper house of Indian Parliament is:

• A. Vidhan Sabha
• B. Rajya Sabha (Correct)
• C. Lok Sabha
• D. Gram Sabha

Explanation: The correct answer is Rajya Sabha.

38. The Dandi March is linked with:

• A. Swadeshi Movement
• B. Salt Satyagraha (Correct)
• C. Quit India Movement
• D. Champaran Movement

Explanation: The Dandi March was part of the Salt Satyagraha in 1930.

39. Kuchipudi is mainly associated with:

• A. Andhra Pradesh (Correct)
• B. Odisha
• C. Punjab
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: Kuchipudi originated in Andhra Pradesh.

40. The Sanchi Stupa is located in:

• A. Madhya Pradesh (Correct)
• B. Bihar
• C. Uttar Pradesh
• D. Rajasthan

Explanation: Sanchi is in Madhya Pradesh.

41. 'India Wins Freedom' was written by:

• A. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (Correct)
• B. Nehru
• C. Gandhi
• D. Rajaji

Explanation: The book was written by Maulana Azad.

42. The upper house of Parliament is called:

• A. Lok Sabha
• B. Rajya Sabha (Correct)
• C. Vidhan Sabha
• D. Gram Sabha

Explanation: Rajya Sabha is the upper house of Parliament.

43. The basic unit of Indian currency is:

• A. rupee (Correct)
• B. paisa
• C. anna
• D. token

Explanation: The rupee is the basic currency unit.

44. Kaziranga National Park is located in:

• A. Assam (Correct)
• B. Odisha
• C. Kerala
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: Kaziranga National Park is in Assam.

45. The green pigment in plants is:

• A. chlorine
• B. chlorophyll (Correct)
• C. cytoplasm
• D. haemoglobin

Explanation: Chlorophyll helps plants absorb sunlight for photosynthesis.

46. The common gas essential for respiration is:

• A. nitrogen
• B. oxygen (Correct)
• C. helium
• D. argon

Explanation: Oxygen is essential for respiration.

47. The process by which water changes into vapour is:

• A. condensation
• B. evaporation (Correct)
• C. freezing
• D. fusion

Explanation: Evaporation converts liquid water into vapour.

48. The speed of sound is highest in:

• A. vacuum
• B. air
• C. water
• D. steel (Correct)

Explanation: Sound travels fastest in solids such as steel.

49. Which vitamin is synthesized in human skin following exposure to sunlight?

• A. Vitamin A
• B. Vitamin C
• C. Vitamin D (Correct)
• D. Vitamin B

Explanation: The correct answer is Vitamin D.

50. Who was the founder of the Gupta Empire?

• A. Samudragupta
• B. Chandragupta I (Correct)
• C. Skandagupta
• D. Harsha

Explanation: Chandragupta I laid the foundation of the Gupta Empire.

51. If a number after increasing by 25% becomes 150, the original number was:

• A. 100
• B. 110
• C. 120 (Correct)
• D. 125

Explanation: Original x 1.25 = 150, so original = 150/1.25 = 120.

52. Population rises by 10% from 2000. New population is:

• A. 2100
• B. 2200 (Correct)
• C. 2300
• D. 2400

Explanation: 10% of 2000 is 200, so new population = 2200.

53. If a man spends 60% of his income, he saves:

• A. 20%
• B. 30%
• C. 35%
• D. 40% (Correct)

Explanation: Savings percentage = 100% - 60% = 40%.

54. 5% of 640 is:

• A. 16
• B. 24
• C. 32 (Correct)
• D. 40

Explanation: 10% of 640 is 64, so 5% is 32.

55. Salary rises from 20000 to 23000. Increase percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 12%
• C. 15% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Increase = 3000 on base 20000, so 15%.

56. A number decreases from 150 to 120. Percentage decrease is:

• A. 15%
• B. 20% (Correct)
• C. 25%
• D. 30%

Explanation: Decrease = 30 on base 150, so 20%.

57. A number is increased by 10% and then by 20%. Net increase is:

• A. 28%
• B. 30%
• C. 32% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: 1.1 x 1.2 = 1.32, so net increase = 32%.

58. A candidate needs 35% to pass. Out of 400 marks, he gets 126. He fails by:

• A. 10
• B. 12
• C. 14 (Correct)
• D. 16

Explanation: Passing marks = 35% of 400 = 140, so shortfall = 14.

59. If A is 20% less than B, then B is what percent more than A?

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 35%

Explanation: If B = 100 and A = 80, then B is 20 more than 80, i.e. 25%.

60. Passing marks are 35% of 400. A student scores 152. He passes by:

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 12 (Correct)
• D. 14

Explanation: Passing marks are 140, so the student passes by 12 marks.

61. Milk in a mixture is 40%. In 250 litres, milk is:

• A. 80
• B. 90
• C. 100 (Correct)
• D. 110

Explanation: 40% of 250 = 100 litres.

62. A number increases from 200 to 250. Percentage increase is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 35%

Explanation: Increase = 50, % = 50/200 × 100 = 25%.

63. Price of an item falls from ₹600 to ₹480. Percentage decrease is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Decrease = 120, % = 120/600 × 100 = 20%.

64. CP = 600 and SP = 720. Profit percent is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 22%

Explanation: Profit = 120, so 120/600 x 100 = 20%.

65. 3/5 as a percent is:

• A. 50%
• B. 55%
• C. 60% (Correct)
• D. 65%

Explanation: 3/5 x 100 = 60%.

66. Marked price Rs. 1500 with 20% discount gives selling price:

• A. 1100
• B. 1150
• C. 1200 (Correct)
• D. 1250

Explanation: Discount = Rs. 300, so SP = Rs. 1200.

67. If boys:girls = 3:2 in a class, percentage of girls is:

• A. 35%
• B. 40% (Correct)
• C. 45%
• D. 50%

Explanation: Girls are 2 out of total 5 parts.

68. What percent of 250 is 75?

• A. 25%
• B. 28%
• C. 30% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: 75/250 × 100 = 30%.

69. In an election, candidate A got 55% of valid votes. B got 1800 votes. Total valid votes were:

• A. 3600
• B. 3800
• C. 4000 (Correct)
• D. 4200

Explanation: B got 45%. 45% = 1800 → Total = 4000.

70. 3/8 expressed as a percentage is:

• A. 30.5%
• B. 37.5% (Correct)
• C. 33.5%
• D. 38.5%

Explanation: 3/8 × 100 = 37.5%.

71. A shopkeeper marks an article 50% above cost price and gives two successive discounts of 10% and 20%. Find his profit percent.

• A. 6%
• B. 8% (Correct)
• C. 10%
• D. 12%

Explanation: Let CP = 100. MP = 150. SP = 150 x 0.9 x 0.8 = 108. Profit = 8%.

72. A dealer sells goods at 5% loss but uses 900 g instead of 1 kg. Find his actual gain percent.

• A. 4.44%
• B. 5.56% (Correct)
• C. 6.25%
• D. 7.5%

Explanation: For goods costing Rs. 90, he receives 95% of Rs. 100 = Rs. 95. Gain = 5 on 90 = 5.56%.

73. A man sells two articles for Rs. 9,600 each. On one he gains 20% and on the other he loses 20%. Find overall loss.

• A. 2%
• B. 3%
• C. 4% (Correct)
• D. 5%

Explanation: Equal SP with equal gain/loss percent gives net loss = x^2/100 = 400/100 = 4%.

74. After selling an article at 18% profit, a trader receives Rs. 5,900. Find cost price.

• A. Rs. 4,800
• B. Rs. 5,000 (Correct)
• C. Rs. 5,200
• D. Rs. 5,400

Explanation: CP = 5900 x 100/118 = 5000.

75. An article is marked at Rs. 2,400. After a discount, it is sold for Rs. 2,040. Find the discount percent.

• A. 12%
• B. 15% (Correct)
• C. 18%
• D. 20%

Explanation: Discount = 360. Discount percent = 360/2400 x 100 = 15%.

76. She waited for _____ hour before boarding.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Hour begins with a vowel sound.

77. The child was angry _____ his friend.

• A. with (Correct)
• B. to
• C. for
• D. at

Explanation: The usual expression is 'angry with someone'.

78. The list of candidates _____ been displayed.

• A. have
• B. has (Correct)
• C. were
• D. are

Explanation: The subject 'list' is singular.

79. By the time we arrived, the movie _____.

• A. starts
• B. had started (Correct)
• C. has started
• D. will start

Explanation: Past perfect shows the earlier of two past actions.

80. He said, 'I have finished my task.' The indirect form is:

• A. He said that he had finished his task. (Correct)
• B. He said that I had finished my task.
• C. He says that he has finished his task.
• D. He said that he finished my task.

Explanation: Present perfect changes to past perfect in reported speech after a past reporting verb.

81. Choose the passive form: Someone has stolen my bag.

• A. My bag has stolen.
• B. My bag has been stolen. (Correct)
• C. My bag was stealing.
• D. My bag had stolen.

Explanation: Present perfect passive uses has/have been plus past participle.

82. Identify the error: Neither of the answers are correct.

• A. Neither
• B. of the answers
• C. are correct (Correct)
• D. no error

Explanation: 'Neither' is singular, so 'is correct' is required.

83. He stayed at home _____ it was raining.

• A. because (Correct)
• B. although
• C. unless
• D. until

Explanation: The reason is introduced by 'because'.

84. Choose the best replacement: She prefers tea than coffee.

• A. prefers tea to coffee (Correct)
• B. prefers tea over coffee than
• C. prefers tea more than coffee
• D. no improvement

Explanation: The correct pattern is 'prefer A to B'.

85. Candidates _____ carry their ID proof to the centre.

• A. must (Correct)
• B. might
• C. used to
• D. dare

Explanation: 'Must' expresses strong requirement.

86. You can solve this, _____?

• A. can you
• B. can't you (Correct)
• C. don't you
• D. won't you

Explanation: Positive statement takes a negative tag with the same auxiliary.

87. If she studies regularly, she _____ the exam.

• A. passes
• B. will pass (Correct)
• C. would pass
• D. had passed

Explanation: A first conditional uses present in the if-clause and future in the main clause.

88. I look forward to _____ from you.

• A. hear
• B. heard
• C. hearing (Correct)
• D. have heard

Explanation: 'Look forward to' takes a gerund.

89. Every player must carry _____ own ID card.

• A. their
• B. his (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Traditional singular agreement takes 'his' here in exam grammar style.

90. He answered the question _____.

• A. correct
• B. correctly (Correct)
• C. more correct
• D. correction

Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify the verb.

91. This road is _____ than that one.

• A. wide
• B. wider (Correct)
• C. widest
• D. more widest

Explanation: Comparative adjective is needed.

92. 'Hit the nail on the head' means:

• A. repair furniture
• B. say exactly the right thing (Correct)
• C. injure oneself
• D. miss the point

Explanation: It refers to being exactly correct.

93. 'In black and white' means:

• A. in colourless form
• B. in writing (Correct)
• C. very old
• D. under doubt

Explanation: The phrase refers to something recorded in written form.

94. A paragraph telling events in order is usually:

• A. argumentative
• B. narrative (Correct)
• C. statistical
• D. instructional only

Explanation: Narrative writing presents events or a story.

95. The best summary of a paragraph should include:

• A. all examples in detail
• B. the central thought briefly (Correct)
• C. only the first sentence
• D. difficult vocabulary only

Explanation: A summary captures the key idea in concise form.

96. If a speaker's words are polite but the context shows irritation, the meaning is likely:

• A. literal only
• B. sarcastic (Correct)
• C. joyful
• D. careless

Explanation: The mismatch between words and context suggests sarcasm.

97. When a word is followed by an example in the next sentence, that example helps the reader understand the word's:

• A. spelling
• B. meaning (Correct)
• C. font style
• D. origin only

Explanation: Examples often clarify meaning in context.

98. A weak title for a passage is one that is:

• A. relevant
• B. specific
• C. misleading (Correct)
• D. connected

Explanation: A title should represent the passage accurately.

99. A passage praising discipline and hard work is likely to have a _____ tone.

• A. critical
• B. appreciative (Correct)
• C. comic
• D. careless

Explanation: Positive approval suggests an appreciative tone.

100. Which of the following is an opinion?

• A. Water boils at 100 C at standard pressure.
• B. The sun rises in the east.
• C. Reading is the most rewarding habit. (Correct)
• D. India adopted its Constitution in 1950.

Explanation: That is a value judgment, not a verifiable fact.