SSC CGL 2026 Tier I Full Mock Test 4

1. X is the daughter of Y. Y is the wife of Z. How is Z related to X?

• A. Father (Correct)
• B. Brother
• C. Uncle
• D. Grandfather

Explanation: Y is X's mother and wife of Z, so Z is X's father.

2. If P + Q means P is the father of Q, P - Q means P is the sister of Q, and P x Q means P is the mother of Q, then A x B + C means C is A's:

• A. Son
• B. Daughter
• C. Grandchild (Correct)
• D. Brother

Explanation: A is mother of B, and B is father of C. Therefore C is A's grandchild.

3. Statements: Some actors are singers. All singers are artists. Conclusion: Some actors are artists.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. Only possible
• D. None

Explanation: Those actors who are singers are definitely artists.

4. A, B, C, D, E sit in a row. C is exactly between A and E. A is second from the left and E is fourth from the left. Where is C?

• A. First
• B. Second
• C. Third (Correct)
• D. Fifth

Explanation: C is exactly between positions 2 and 4, so C is at position 3.

5. Which year is a leap year?

• A. 1900
• B. 2018
• C. 2020 (Correct)
• D. 2100

Explanation: 2020 is divisible by 4 and not a century exception.

6. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in 12 hours?

• A. 10
• B. 11 (Correct)
• C. 12
• D. 13

Explanation: The hands coincide 11 times in every 12-hour period.

7. Students, Boys and Girls are represented as:

• A. Boys and Girls as separate parts inside Students (Correct)
• B. Students inside Boys
• C. All separate
• D. Boys inside Girls

Explanation: Boys and girls are two groups within students.

8. Two opposite faces of a dice cannot be seen together in one view. If 1, 2 and 3 are visible together, which pair is definitely not opposite?

• A. 1 and 2 (Correct)
• B. 1 and 6
• C. 2 and 5
• D. 3 and 4

Explanation: Faces visible together are adjacent, so 1 and 2 are definitely not opposite.

9. How many edges does a cube have?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 12 (Correct)
• D. 14

Explanation: A cube has 12 edges.

10. Which word comes last in dictionary order?

• A. Train (Correct)
• B. Trace
• C. Trade
• D. Track

Explanation: After Tra, compare fourth letters: c, d, c, i. Train comes last.

11. Find the next number: 3, 6, 12, 24, ?

• A. 30
• B. 36
• C. 42
• D. 48 (Correct)

Explanation: Each term doubles.

12. Find the next term: ZA, YB, XC, ?

• A. WD (Correct)
• B. WE
• C. VD
• D. WC

Explanation: First letter moves backward, second moves forward.

13. In a code language, 'red tall lamp' is written as 'ka mi zo' and 'blue tall wall' is written as 'zo pa re'. Which code may represent 'tall'?

• A. ka
• B. mi
• C. zo (Correct)
• D. pa

Explanation: The common word in both statements is 'tall', and the common code is 'zo'.

14. Find the next term: C2, F4, I6, L8, ?

• A. M10
• B. O10 (Correct)
• C. P12
• D. N10

Explanation: Letters move by three positions and numbers by two.

15. Teacher : School :: Doctor : ?

• A. Library
• B. Hospital (Correct)
• C. Factory
• D. Court

Explanation: A teacher works in a school and a doctor works in a hospital.

16. 4 : 65 :: 5 : ?

• A. 101
• B. 116
• C. 126 (Correct)
• D. 130

Explanation: The relation is n^3 + 1. 4^3 + 1 = 65, and 5^3 + 1 = 126.

17. FLOW : GMPX :: RAIN : ?

• A. SBJO (Correct)
• B. TBJO
• C. SBKP
• D. QZHM

Explanation: Each letter is shifted one place ahead: R->S, A->B, I->J, N->O.

18. Choose the odd one out: Copper, Iron, Brass, Aluminium.

• A. Copper
• B. Iron
• C. Brass (Correct)
• D. Aluminium

Explanation: Brass is an alloy, while the others are metals.

19. Choose the odd number.

• A. 121
• B. 169
• C. 225 (Correct)
• D. 289

Explanation: 121, 169 and 289 are squares of prime numbers 11, 13 and 17. 225 is square of composite number 15.

20. A person walks 8 m east, then 6 m north, then 8 m west. How far is he from the starting point?

• A. 4 m
• B. 6 m (Correct)
• C. 8 m
• D. 10 m

Explanation: East and west movements cancel. He remains 6 m north of the start.

21. Facing south, a person turns left, then right, then right. Which direction does he face?

• A. East
• B. West (Correct)
• C. North
• D. South

Explanation: South -> east -> south -> west.

22. A man walks 15 m north and then 20 m east. Find the shortest distance from the starting point.

• A. 25 m (Correct)
• B. 30 m
• C. 35 m
• D. 40 m

Explanation: Using Pythagoras, distance = sqrt(15^2 + 20^2) = 25 m.

23. If north is called east, east is called south, south is called west and west is called north, then original south is called:

• A. North
• B. East
• C. South
• D. West (Correct)

Explanation: The code directly says original south is called west.

24. Rita starts from home, walks 10 m west, turns right and walks 10 m, then turns right and walks 5 m. She is in which direction from home?

• A. North-west (Correct)
• B. North-east
• C. South-west
• D. West

Explanation: Net movement is 5 m west and 10 m north, so she is north-west of home.

25. A person facing north-east turns 90 degrees clockwise. He now faces:

• A. South-east (Correct)
• B. South-west
• C. North-west
• D. East

Explanation: A 90-degree clockwise turn from north-east leads to south-east.

26. Who is known as the Nightingale of India?

• A. Sarojini Naidu (Correct)
• B. Indira Gandhi
• C. Annie Besant
• D. Aruna Asaf Ali

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu is called the Nightingale of India.

27. The classical dance Mohiniyattam belongs to:

• A. Kerala (Correct)
• B. Tamil Nadu
• C. Odisha
• D. Assam

Explanation: Mohiniyattam is the classical dance form of Kerala.

28. The India Gate is located in:

• A. Delhi (Correct)
• B. Agra
• C. Bhopal
• D. Jaipur

Explanation: India Gate is in New Delhi.

29. 'Geetanjali' is written by:

• A. Tagore (Correct)
• B. Premchand
• C. Nehru
• D. Bharati

Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore wrote Gitanjali.

30. Untouchability is abolished under Article:

• A. 14
• B. 17 (Correct)
• C. 19
• D. 21

Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability.

31. A budget deficit means:

• A. income exceeds expenditure
• B. expenditure exceeds income (Correct)
• C. taxes vanish
• D. all prices fall

Explanation: A deficit arises when spending is greater than receipts.

32. The highest peak in India is:

• A. Nanda Devi
• B. Kanchenjunga (Correct)
• C. Anamudi
• D. Kamet

Explanation: Kanchenjunga is regarded as the highest peak in India.

33. Which organ purifies blood in the human body?

• A. heart
• B. kidney (Correct)
• C. lungs
• D. stomach

Explanation: Kidneys filter waste from blood.

34. The chemical formula of common salt is:

• A. NaCl (Correct)
• B. KCl
• C. NaOH
• D. HCl

Explanation: Common salt is sodium chloride, NaCl.

35. The gas absorbed by plants during photosynthesis is:

• A. oxygen
• B. carbon dioxide (Correct)
• C. nitrogen
• D. hydrogen

Explanation: Plants absorb carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

36. The pH of pure water at 25 degrees Celsius is:

• A. 5
• B. 7 (Correct)
• C. 8
• D. 6

Explanation: The correct answer is 7.

37. The Revolt of 1857 started from:

• A. Meerut (Correct)
• B. Delhi
• C. Kanpur
• D. Lucknow

Explanation: The revolt began at Meerut in May 1857.

38. The festival Onam is celebrated mainly in:

• A. Kerala (Correct)
• B. Tamil Nadu
• C. Karnataka
• D. Assam

Explanation: Onam is the major harvest festival of Kerala.

39. The Charminar is located in:

• A. Hyderabad (Correct)
• B. Lucknow
• C. Mysuru
• D. Aurangabad

Explanation: Charminar is the famous landmark of Hyderabad.

40. The Chief Election Commissioner belongs to which body?

• A. UPSC
• B. Election Commission of India (Correct)
• C. Finance Commission
• D. NITI Aayog

Explanation: The CEC heads the Election Commission of India.

41. The full form of GDP is:

• A. Gross Domestic Product (Correct)
• B. General Development Plan
• C. Gross Demand Product
• D. Government Debt Plan

Explanation: GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product.

42. The smallest continent is:

• A. Europe
• B. Australia (Correct)
• C. Antarctica
• D. South America

Explanation: Australia is the smallest continent.

43. Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?

• A. veins
• B. arteries (Correct)
• C. capillaries
• D. nerves

Explanation: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

44. Water is a compound of:

• A. hydrogen and oxygen (Correct)
• B. oxygen and nitrogen
• C. hydrogen and carbon
• D. nitrogen and chlorine

Explanation: Water consists of hydrogen and oxygen.

45. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in:

• A. Geneva
• B. Paris
• C. New York (Correct)
• D. London

Explanation: The correct answer is New York.

46. Who was the first President of independent India?

• A. Rajendra Prasad (Correct)
• B. Nehru
• C. Radhakrishnan
• D. Zakir Husain

Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India.

47. Bharatanatyam is primarily associated with:

• A. Kerala
• B. Tamil Nadu (Correct)
• C. Odisha
• D. Assam

Explanation: Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu.

48. The Sun Temple of Konark is in:

• A. Odisha (Correct)
• B. Bihar
• C. Madhya Pradesh
• D. Rajasthan

Explanation: Konark Sun Temple is located in Odisha.

49. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:

• A. Lok Sabha
• B. Rajya Sabha (Correct)
• C. Supreme Court
• D. NITI Aayog

Explanation: The Vice-President serves as Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

50. SEBI regulates the:

• A. bank branches
• B. stock market (Correct)
• C. railways
• D. agriculture census

Explanation: SEBI regulates India's securities market.

51. A number after decreasing by 20% becomes 160. Original number was:

• A. 180
• B. 190
• C. 200 (Correct)
• D. 220

Explanation: Original x 0.8 = 160, so original = 200.

52. Population decreases by 5% from 4000. New population is:

• A. 3600
• B. 3700
• C. 3800 (Correct)
• D. 3900

Explanation: 5% of 4000 is 200, so new population = 3800.

53. Income is 5000 and expenditure is 3500. Savings percent on income is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25%
• C. 30% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: Savings = 1500, so 1500/5000 x 100 = 30%.

54. 30% of 500 is:

• A. 120
• B. 130
• C. 140
• D. 150 (Correct)

Explanation: 30% of 500 = 150.

55. A value rises from 200 to 260. Percentage increase is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25%
• C. 30% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: Increase = 60 on base 200, so 30%.

56. A price falls from 800 to 720. Percentage decrease is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease = 80 on base 800, so 10%.

57. A number is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. Net effect is:

• A. No change (Correct)
• B. 5% increase
• C. 5% decrease
• D. 10% increase

Explanation: 1.25 x 0.8 = 1, so there is no net change.

58. A candidate scores 225 out of 300. Percentage is:

• A. 70%
• B. 72%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 78%

Explanation: 225/300 x 100 = 75%.

59. A is 25% more than B. B is what percent less than A?

• A. 15%
• B. 20% (Correct)
• C. 25%
• D. 30%

Explanation: If B=100, A=125, so reduction is 25/125.

60. If 144 students out of 180 pass, pass percentage is:

• A. 70%
• B. 75%
• C. 80% (Correct)
• D. 85%

Explanation: 144/180 x 100 = 80%.

61. Water is mixed with milk in the ratio 1:4. What percentage of the mixture is water?

• A. 20% (Correct)
• B. 25%
• C. 30%
• D. 40%

Explanation: Water fraction = 1/(1+4) = 1/5 = 20%.

62. If 20% of x is 80, what is x?

• A. 300
• B. 350
• C. 400 (Correct)
• D. 450

Explanation: x = 80 × 100/20 = 400.

63. CP = 500 and SP = 600. Profit percent is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 22%

Explanation: Profit = 100, so 100/500 x 100 = 20%.

64. What is 12.5% of 800?

• A. 80
• B. 90
• C. 100 (Correct)
• D. 110

Explanation: 12.5% = 1/8. 800/8 = 100.

65. A dishonest dealer sells at CP but uses a 900 g weight as 1 kg. Profit percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 11.11% (Correct)
• C. 12.5%
• D. 15%

Explanation: He gives 900 g for price of 1000 g, so gain = 100/900 × 100 = 11.11%.

66. Marked price is Rs. 600 and discount is 10%. Selling price is:

• A. 520
• B. 530
• C. 540 (Correct)
• D. 550

Explanation: Discount = 60, so SP = 600 - 60 = 540.

67. A shopkeeper gives 25% discount and still gains 20%. By what percent is the marked price above cost price?

• A. 45%
• B. 50%
• C. 55%
• D. 60% (Correct)

Explanation: SP = 120% of CP and SP = 75% of MP. Thus MP = 120/75 x 100 = 160% of CP.

68. Which single discount is equivalent to discounts of 20%, 15% and 10%?

• A. 38.8% (Correct)
• B. 39.2%
• C. 40.4%
• D. 41.2%

Explanation: Final price factor = 0.8 x 0.85 x 0.9 = 0.612. Discount = 38.8%.

69. Two articles have cost prices in the ratio 5:6. They are sold at profits of 20% and 25% respectively. If total selling price is Rs. 13,500, find the first cost price.

• A. Rs. 4,500
• B. Rs. 5,000 (Correct)
• C. Rs. 5,500
• D. Rs. 6,000

Explanation: Let CPs be 5x and 6x. SP total = 6x + 7.5x = 13.5x = 13500, so x = 1000 and first CP = 5000.

70. An article sold at Rs. 1,530 gives 15% loss. At what price should it be sold to gain 15%?

• A. Rs. 1,980
• B. Rs. 2,040
• C. Rs. 2,070 (Correct)
• D. Rs. 2,160

Explanation: CP = 1530/0.85 = 1800. Required SP = 1800 x 1.15 = 2070.

71. A dealer buys 1 kg for Rs. 80 and sells 800 g for Rs. 80. Find gain percent.

• A. 20%
• B. 22.5%
• C. 25% (Correct)
• D. 30%

Explanation: Cost of 800 g = Rs. 64, selling price = Rs. 80. Gain = 16 on 64 = 25%.

72. An article is sold for Rs. 1,152 after a 10% discount and gives 20% profit. Find CP.

• A. Rs. 840
• B. Rs. 900
• C. Rs. 960 (Correct)
• D. Rs. 1,000

Explanation: SP = 1152 = 120% of CP. CP = 1152 x 100/120 = 960.

73. Selling an article for Rs. 4,600 gives 15% profit. What selling price gives 25% profit?

• A. Rs. 4,800
• B. Rs. 5,000 (Correct)
• C. Rs. 5,200
• D. Rs. 5,400

Explanation: CP = 4600/1.15 = 4000. For 25% profit, SP = 4000 x 1.25 = 5000.

74. A retailer offers 'buy 4 get 1 free'. What is the effective discount percent?

• A. 16%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Customer gets 5 items for price of 4. Discount = 1/5 x 100 = 20%.

75. An item costs Rs. 2,000. It is sold at 20% profit, and then 5% tax is added on selling price. What does the customer pay?

• A. Rs. 2,400
• B. Rs. 2,480
• C. Rs. 2,520 (Correct)
• D. Rs. 2,600

Explanation: SP before tax = 2400. Customer pays 2400 x 1.05 = 2520.

76. Choose the correct article: It was _____ unique opportunity.

• A. a (Correct)
• B. an
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Unique begins with a consonant sound, so 'a' is correct.

77. She has been absent _____ Monday.

• A. from
• B. since (Correct)
• C. for
• D. by

Explanation: 'Since' is used with a point of time.

78. Each of the players _____ a separate locker.

• A. have
• B. has (Correct)
• C. were given
• D. are given

Explanation: 'Each' is singular and takes a singular verb.

79. By next Monday, she _____ the report.

• A. completes
• B. completed
• C. will have completed (Correct)
• D. has completed

Explanation: Future perfect is used for an action completed before a future time.

80. Choose the indirect form: He said, 'Let us review the answer key again.'

• A. He suggested that they should review the answer key again. (Correct)
• B. He said that they review the answer key again.
• C. He requested that they reviewed the answer key again.
• D. He ordered they review the answer key again.

Explanation: 'Let us' used as a proposal is commonly reported with 'suggested that ... should'.

81. Choose the passive form: They will announce the result tomorrow.

• A. The result will announce tomorrow.
• B. The result will be announced tomorrow. (Correct)
• C. The result is announced tomorrow.
• D. The result was announced tomorrow.

Explanation: Future passive uses will be plus past participle.

82. Identify the error: One of the boys have solved the puzzle.

• A. One of
• B. the boys
• C. have solved (Correct)
• D. the puzzle

Explanation: 'One' is singular, so 'has solved' is correct.

83. He worked hard _____ he could succeed.

• A. so that (Correct)
• B. unless
• C. although
• D. because of

Explanation: 'So that' expresses purpose.

84. Choose the best replacement: He is senior than me.

• A. senior to me (Correct)
• B. senior from me
• C. more senior than me
• D. no improvement

Explanation: 'Senior' is followed by 'to', not 'than'.

85. She is absent today, _____?

• A. is she
• B. isn't she (Correct)
• C. doesn't she
• D. wasn't she

Explanation: Positive statement takes negative tag.

86. If I had seen her, I _____ to her.

• A. speak
• B. would speak
• C. would have spoken (Correct)
• D. spoke

Explanation: Third conditional uses 'would have' plus past participle.

87. I would rather _____ at home tonight.

• A. stay (Correct)
• B. stayed
• C. staying
• D. to stay

Explanation: 'Would rather' is followed by the base form.

88. Neither Rani nor Meena brought _____ notebook.

• A. her (Correct)
• B. their
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: In traditional exam grammar, singular nouns joined by 'nor' take a singular pronoun.

89. 'Under the weather' means:

• A. outside in rain
• B. slightly ill (Correct)
• C. very rich
• D. deeply confused

Explanation: The expression means not feeling well.

90. 'By leaps and bounds' means:

• A. slowly
• B. with difficulty
• C. very rapidly (Correct)
• D. without logic

Explanation: The phrase means at a very fast rate.

91. Repeated emphasis on digital learning, online classes, and e-books suggests the paragraph is mainly about:

• A. weather changes
• B. modern education methods (Correct)
• C. village farming
• D. road transport

Explanation: Those details point to one central theme.

92. If an author says a policy 'looks attractive on paper', the implied meaning is that it may:

• A. work perfectly
• B. fail in practice (Correct)
• C. be illegal
• D. be historical

Explanation: The phrase suggests a gap between theory and execution.

93. Context clues are especially useful when the word is:

• A. already known
• B. unknown or confusing (Correct)
• C. printed in bold
• D. at the start only

Explanation: Context helps infer the meaning of unfamiliar words.

94. The most suitable title should be:

• A. too broad
• B. based on a minor detail
• C. based on the central theme (Correct)
• D. completely surprising

Explanation: A good title reflects the main theme.

95. A passage mocking unnecessary luxury has a likely tone of:

• A. admiration
• B. sarcasm (Correct)
• C. sympathy
• D. fear

Explanation: Mocking language usually signals sarcasm.

96. Which statement is a fact?

• A. Morning walks are the best habit.
• B. The Earth revolves around the Sun. (Correct)
• C. This city is the most beautiful.
• D. Honesty is always easy.

Explanation: That statement is scientifically verifiable.

97. An author writing about water conservation is most likely trying to:

• A. confuse the reader
• B. entertain only
• C. inform or persuade (Correct)
• D. describe a movie

Explanation: Such passages often aim to educate and influence readers.

98. Signal words like 'first', 'next', and 'finally' help identify:

• A. character names
• B. time or order (Correct)
• C. grammar errors
• D. sound effects

Explanation: They indicate sequence in the passage.

99. If crop failure followed a long drought, the drought is the:

• A. effect
• B. cause (Correct)
• C. opinion
• D. title

Explanation: The drought led to the crop failure.

100. Skimming is mainly used to:

• A. memorize every word
• B. get the general idea quickly (Correct)
• C. correct grammar
• D. translate the passage

Explanation: Skimming helps readers understand the broad meaning fast.