SSC CGL 2026 Tier-II Paper-I Objective Mock 1

1. After a 20% rise, a salary becomes Rs. 36000. Original salary was:

• A. 28000
• B. 30000 (Correct)
• C. 32000
• D. 34000

Explanation: Original x 1.2 = 36000, so original = 30000.

2. Population of a town rises by 12% from 25000. New population is:

• A. 27600
• B. 27800
• C. 28000 (Correct)
• D. 28500

Explanation: Increase = 12% of 25000 = 3000, so new population = 28000.

3. Income is 8000 and expenditure is 6000. Savings percent on income is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 35%

Explanation: Savings = 2000, so 2000/8000 x 100 = 25%.

4. 12% of 250 is:

• A. 25
• B. 28
• C. 30 (Correct)
• D. 32

Explanation: 12% of 250 = 30.

5. Salary rises from 15000 to 18000. Increase percent is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Increase = 3000 on base 15000, so 20%.

6. A number decreases from 250 to 200. Percentage decrease is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Decrease = 50 on base 250, so 20%.

7. A number increases by 10% and then by 20%. Net increase is:

• A. 28%
• B. 30%
• C. 32% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: Net factor = 1.1 x 1.2 = 1.32.

8. A student gets 168 marks out of 240. Percentage is:

• A. 65%
• B. 68%
• C. 70% (Correct)
• D. 72%

Explanation: 168/240 x 100 = 70%.

9. A is 20% more than B. B is what percent less than A?

• A. 15%
• B. 16.67% (Correct)
• C. 18%
• D. 20%

Explanation: If B = 100, A = 120. Difference as a percent of A is 20/120.

10. If 96 students out of 120 pass, pass percentage is:

• A. 75%
• B. 80% (Correct)
• C. 82%
• D. 85%

Explanation: 96/120 x 100 = 80%.

11. Rice and wheat are mixed in ratio 2:3. In 25 kg mixture, wheat is:

• A. 10 kg
• B. 12 kg
• C. 15 kg (Correct)
• D. 18 kg

Explanation: Wheat = 3/5 of 25 = 15 kg.

12. A shopkeeper sells sugar at cost price but uses a 800 g weight instead of 1 kg. His gain percent is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 22.5%
• D. 18%

Explanation: He charges for 1000 g but gives only 800 g, so gain = 200/800 x 100 = 25%.

13. Marked price is 600 and discount is 10%. Selling price is:

• A. 520
• B. 540 (Correct)
• C. 560
• D. 580

Explanation: 10% of 600 is 60, so selling price = 540.

14. At what price should an article costing Rs. 320 be sold to gain 25%?

• A. Rs. 360
• B. Rs. 380
• C. Rs. 400 (Correct)
• D. Rs. 420

Explanation: Selling price = 125% of 320 = 400.

15. Two successive discounts of 10% and 20% are equivalent to a single discount of:

• A. 28% (Correct)
• B. 30%
• C. 32%
• D. 35%

Explanation: Net discount = 10 + 20 - (10×20/100) = 28%.

16. An article is sold at 20% discount on MP of 1000. SP is:

• A. 700
• B. 750
• C. 800 (Correct)
• D. 850

Explanation: 20% of 1000 is 200, so SP = 800.

17. A trader sells 60% of goods at 20% profit and the rest at 10% loss. Find overall profit percent.

• A. 7%
• B. 8% (Correct)
• C. 9%
• D. 10%

Explanation: Assume total CP = 100. Profit on 60 = 12 and loss on 40 = 4. Net profit = 8%.

18. An article bought for Rs. 500 is sold for Rs. 575. Profit is:

• A. 50
• B. 60
• C. 70
• D. 75 (Correct)

Explanation: Profit = SP - CP = 575 - 500 = 75.

19. If CP = 400 and SP = 480, profit percent is:

• A. 15%
• B. 20% (Correct)
• C. 25%
• D. 30%

Explanation: Profit = 80, so profit percent = 80/400 × 100 = 20%.

20. An article bought for Rs. 800 is sold for Rs. 720. Loss percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Loss = 80, so loss percent = 80/800 × 100 = 10%.

21. If SP is Rs. 960 after gaining 20%, CP is:

• A. 700
• B. 750
• C. 800 (Correct)
• D. 850

Explanation: SP = 120% of CP, so CP = 960 × 100/120 = 800.

22. A shopkeeper marks goods 25% above CP and gives 10% discount. Profit percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 11.5%
• C. 12.5% (Correct)
• D. 15%

Explanation: Take CP = 100, MP = 125, SP = 112.5, so profit = 12.5%.

23. An article sold for Rs. 450 incurs a loss of 10%. Cost price is:

• A. 475
• B. 500 (Correct)
• C. 525
• D. 550

Explanation: If SP = 90% of CP, CP = 450 × 100/90 = 500.

24. Successive discounts of 15% and 15% are equivalent to:

• A. 27%
• B. 27.5%
• C. 27.75% (Correct)
• D. 30%

Explanation: Net discount = 15 + 15 - 2.25 = 27.75%.

25. If CP = 250 and loss = 50, SP is:

• A. 180
• B. 190
• C. 200 (Correct)
• D. 210

Explanation: Selling price = cost price - loss = 250 - 50 = 200.

26. If profit is 25% and CP is 640, SP is:

• A. 720
• B. 760
• C. 800 (Correct)
• D. 840

Explanation: SP = 125% of 640 = 800.

27. An article marked Rs. 900 is sold for Rs. 810. Discount percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 9%
• C. 10% (Correct)
• D. 12%

Explanation: Discount = 90, so discount percent = 90/900 × 100 = 10%.

28. A trader gains 20% even after giving 20% discount. Marked price is what percent above CP?

• A. 40%
• B. 45%
• C. 50% (Correct)
• D. 60%

Explanation: Take CP = 100. To gain 20%, SP = 120. Since SP = 80% of MP, MP = 150. So MP is 50% above CP.

29. An article sold for 360 gives neither profit nor loss. Cost price is:

• A. 320
• B. 340
• C. 360 (Correct)
• D. 380

Explanation: No profit no loss means SP = CP.

30. An article sold for 640 gives no profit no loss. CP is:

• A. 600
• B. 620
• C. 640 (Correct)
• D. 660

Explanation: At no profit no loss, CP = SP.

31. A woman said, 'My mother's only son is this boy's father.' How is the woman related to the boy?

• A. Mother
• B. Aunt (Correct)
• C. Sister
• D. Grandmother

Explanation: The woman's mother's only son is her brother; that brother is the boy's father, so she is the boy's aunt.

32. If A % B means A is the brother of B, A $ B means A is the wife of B, and A * B means A is the son of B, then P * Q $ R means P is R's:

• A. Son (Correct)
• B. Brother
• C. Father
• D. Nephew

Explanation: Q is the wife of R, and P is the son of Q. Therefore P is also R's son.

33. Statements: All windows are doors. No door is wall. Conclusion: No window is wall.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. Cannot say
• D. Either

Explanation: Windows are included in doors, and no door is wall.

34. Seven students sit in a row. R is fourth from the left. What is R's position from the right?

• A. 3rd
• B. 4th (Correct)
• C. 5th
• D. 6th

Explanation: Position from right = 7 - 4 + 1 = 4.

35. If today is Wednesday, what day will it be after 45 days?

• A. Friday
• B. Saturday (Correct)
• C. Sunday
• D. Monday

Explanation: 45 leaves remainder 3 when divided by 7. Wednesday + 3 days = Saturday.

36. At 9:00, the angle between the clock hands is:

• A. 60 deg
• B. 90 deg (Correct)
• C. 120 deg
• D. 180 deg

Explanation: At 9:00, the hands are three hour marks apart, so the angle is 90 degrees.

37. Which relation represents Square, Rectangle and Triangle?

• A. Square inside Rectangle; Triangle separate (Correct)
• B. Rectangle inside Square
• C. All same
• D. Triangle inside Rectangle

Explanation: Every square is a rectangle, while a triangle is a separate figure.

38. If 1 is opposite 6 and 2 is opposite 5 on a dice, which number is opposite 3?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 6

Explanation: The remaining opposite pair is 3 and 4.

39. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 125 equal cubes. How many have exactly two painted faces?

• A. 24
• B. 30
• C. 36 (Correct)
• D. 40

Explanation: For 5 divisions per edge, exactly two painted faces = 12 x (5-2) = 36.

40. Arrange: CLEAR, CLEAN, CLERK, CLEVER. Which is third?

• A. CLEAN
• B. CLEAR
• C. CLERK (Correct)
• D. CLEVER

Explanation: Order is CLEAN, CLEAR, CLERK, CLEVER.

41. Find the missing term: 2, 5, 10, 17, 26, ?

• A. 35
• B. 37 (Correct)
• C. 39
• D. 41

Explanation: Differences are +3, +5, +7, +9, so next is +11.

42. Find the next term: M, O, Q, S, ?

• A. T
• B. U (Correct)
• C. V
• D. W

Explanation: The letters move forward by two positions.

43. If CAT is coded as DBU, then RAT is coded as:

• A. SBU (Correct)
• B. TCV
• C. SCV
• D. TBU

Explanation: Each letter is shifted one step ahead: R->S, A->B, T->U.

44. Find the next term: 2B, 4D, 6F, 8H, ?

• A. 10I
• B. 10J (Correct)
• C. 12J
• D. 12K

Explanation: Numbers increase by two and letters by two positions.

45. Bird : Nest :: Bee : ?

• A. Hive (Correct)
• B. Web
• C. Cave
• D. Pond

Explanation: A bee lives in a hive.

46. 7 : 50 :: 10 : ?

• A. 99
• B. 100
• C. 101 (Correct)
• D. 102

Explanation: The relation is n^2 + 1. 7^2 + 1 = 50, and 10^2 + 1 = 101.

47. ACE : BDF :: MOQ : ?

• A. NPR (Correct)
• B. PRS
• C. NOP
• D. NQS

Explanation: Each letter shifts by one place forward.

48. Choose the odd one out: Violet, Indigo, Orange, Pink.

• A. Violet
• B. Indigo
• C. Orange
• D. Pink (Correct)

Explanation: Violet, indigo and orange are colours of the rainbow; pink is not.

49. A person walks 12 m south, 5 m east, 12 m north and 9 m west. How far and in which direction is he from the starting point?

• A. 4 m west (Correct)
• B. 4 m east
• C. 14 m west
• D. 14 m east

Explanation: North and south cancel. Net horizontal movement = 9 m west - 5 m east = 4 m west.

50. Facing west, a person turns right twice and then left once. He finally faces:

• A. North (Correct)
• B. South
• C. East
• D. West

Explanation: Right from west is north, the second right is east, and left from east is north.

51. A boy moves 9 m east and 12 m south. His shortest distance from the start is:

• A. 15 m (Correct)
• B. 18 m
• C. 21 m
• D. 24 m

Explanation: This forms a 9-12-15 right triangle.

52. If left is called north, right is called south, front is called east and back is called west, then a person moving to his front is said to move towards:

• A. North
• B. South
• C. East (Correct)
• D. West

Explanation: The code states that front is called east.

53. A man walks 7 km north, 24 km east and then 7 km south. Where is he from his starting point?

• A. 24 km east (Correct)
• B. 24 km west
• C. 31 km east
• D. 17 km east

Explanation: The north and south movements cancel, leaving 24 km east.

54. A person faces east. He turns 135 degrees anticlockwise. Which direction does he face?

• A. North-east
• B. North-west (Correct)
• C. South-east
• D. South-west

Explanation: From east, a 135-degree anticlockwise turn points to north-west.

55. A person walks 3 m east and then 4 m north. His shortest distance from the start is:

• A. 5 m (Correct)
• B. 6 m
• C. 7 m
• D. 8 m

Explanation: This forms a 3-4-5 right triangle.

56. Ravi walks 5 m north and then 5 m south. He is now:

• A. 5 m north
• B. 5 m south
• C. at the starting point (Correct)
• D. 10 m south

Explanation: The movements cancel each other.

57. A person walks 8 m west and 15 m north. The shortest distance from the start is:

• A. 15 m
• B. 16 m
• C. 17 m (Correct)
• D. 18 m

Explanation: This forms an 8-15-17 triangle.

58. A person walks 5 m east and 7 m north. Find the shortest distance from start.

• A. 35 m
• B. 12 m
• C. √74 m (Correct)
• D. 2 m

Explanation: Use Pythagoras theorem.

59. Find the next term: 4, 7, 13, 22, 34, ?

• A. 46
• B. 55
• C. 49 (Correct)
• D. 52

Explanation: Differences increase in a fixed pattern.

60. If CLOUD is coded as FORXG, then RIVER will be coded as:

• A. ULYHX
• B. ULYHU (Correct)
• C. UHYLU
• D. REVIR

Explanation: Each letter moves 3 step(s) forward.

61. Choose the correct article: It was _____ unusual experience.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Unusual begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is correct.

62. She is interested _____ classical music.

• A. at
• B. in (Correct)
• C. on
• D. for

Explanation: The correct phrase is 'interested in'.

63. Neither of the boys _____ ready.

• A. are
• B. were
• C. is (Correct)
• D. have

Explanation: 'Neither' takes a singular verb.

64. She _____ to Delhi last week.

• A. go
• B. goes
• C. went (Correct)
• D. gone

Explanation: Past time marker requires simple past.

65. Choose the passive form: They are repairing the road.

• A. The road is repaired.
• B. The road is being repaired. (Correct)
• C. The road was being repaired.
• D. The road has repaired.

Explanation: Present continuous passive uses is being + past participle.

66. Identify the error: The news are surprising.

• A. The
• B. news
• C. are surprising (Correct)
• D. no error

Explanation: 'News' is singular, so 'is surprising' is correct.

67. Work hard, _____ you will fail.

• A. and
• B. or (Correct)
• C. but
• D. so

Explanation: 'Or' expresses warning in this pattern.

68. Choose the best replacement: He is good in maths.

• A. good at maths (Correct)
• B. good on maths
• C. good for maths
• D. no improvement

Explanation: 'Good at' is the correct phrase.

69. He can solve it, _____?

• A. can't he (Correct)
• B. can he
• C. doesn't he
• D. isn't he

Explanation: The positive statement takes a negative tag.

70. If it rains, we _____ indoors.

• A. stay
• B. stayed
• C. will stay (Correct)
• D. would stay

Explanation: First conditional uses future in the main clause.

71. Had I known, I _____ helped you.

• A. will
• B. would have (Correct)
• C. shall
• D. am

Explanation: Third conditional takes 'would have'.

72. Everyone should do _____ duty.

• A. their
• B. his (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Traditional exam grammar prefers singular 'his' here.

73. 'Break the ice' means:

• A. shatter a frozen object
• B. start a friendly interaction (Correct)
• C. ruin a plan
• D. stay silent

Explanation: The idiom means removing awkwardness and beginning conversation.

74. 'Read between the lines' means:

• A. read softly
• B. find the hidden meaning (Correct)
• C. skip lines
• D. read quickly

Explanation: It means understanding what is implied, not directly stated.

75. A topic sentence usually introduces the:

• A. author's signature
• B. main idea (Correct)
• C. hardest word
• D. final conclusion only

Explanation: The topic sentence presents the central thought.

76. If a passage says the room was silent except for the ticking clock, the setting is likely:

• A. crowded
• B. tense and quiet (Correct)
• C. celebratory
• D. chaotic

Explanation: The description suggests silence and suspense.

77. When a word's meaning is guessed from nearby sentences, we use:

• A. context clues (Correct)
• B. headings only
• C. punctuation only
• D. page numbers

Explanation: Context clues help infer unfamiliar meanings.

78. The best title for a passage should be:

• A. long and decorative
• B. connected to the central idea (Correct)
• C. based on a minor detail
• D. completely unrelated

Explanation: A strong title reflects the passage's main theme.

79. A passage warning against pollution with concern and urgency has a _____ tone.

• A. humorous
• B. alarmed (Correct)
• C. carefree
• D. playful

Explanation: Concern plus urgency suggests an alarmed tone.

80. Which is an opinion?

• A. The Ganga flows through northern India.
• B. The moon has no light of its own.
• C. School uniforms are the best policy. (Correct)
• D. Water freezes at 0 C.

Explanation: That is a judgment, not a verifiable fact.

81. A biography is generally written to:

• A. argue a court case
• B. tell the life story of a person (Correct)
• C. present equations
• D. sell a machine

Explanation: Biographies narrate a person's life and achievements.

82. Words like 'however' and 'although' usually signal:

• A. contrast (Correct)
• B. addition
• C. time order
• D. repetition

Explanation: They indicate contrast between ideas.

83. If improved roads increased tourism, improved roads are the:

• A. effect
• B. cause (Correct)
• C. title
• D. opinion

Explanation: The better roads led to higher tourism.

84. Scanning is most useful when you want to:

• A. understand tone deeply
• B. find a specific detail quickly (Correct)
• C. memorize the whole passage
• D. rewrite the paragraph

Explanation: Scanning helps locate names, dates, numbers, and other details fast.

85. In comprehension, the word 'this' usually refers to:

• A. an unrelated future sentence
• B. an idea already mentioned nearby (Correct)
• C. the title only
• D. the reader's name

Explanation: Demonstratives usually point to a nearby idea in the text.

86. A good summary should include:

• A. every example
• B. the key points briefly (Correct)
• C. only the title
• D. personal opinion

Explanation: A summary compresses the important ideas.

87. Which sentence is an opinion?

• A. The Earth revolves around the Sun.
• B. Delhi is the capital of India.
• C. Summer is the most enjoyable season. (Correct)
• D. Water boils at 100 C.

Explanation: Enjoyable is based on personal judgment.

88. Choose the synonym of 'imminent'.

• A. impending (Correct)
• B. approaching
• C. agreement
• D. refuge

Explanation: imminent means about to happen very soon. In exam context: Used in passages about danger, decisions, deadlines, elections, or policy action.

89. Choose the antonym of 'extradition'.

• A. asylum (Correct)
• B. protection
• C. praise
• D. plain speech

Explanation: extradition means the legal handover of an accused or convicted person from one country to another. In exam context: Often appears in diplomacy, criminal justice, treaty, and international relations passages.

90. Choose the synonym of “Diligent”.

• A. Doubtful
• B. Lazy
• C. Careless
• D. Hardworking (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is Hardworking.

91. Choose the correct article: He waited for _____ hour before the gate opened.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Hour begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is correct.

92. He has been waiting here _____ 9 o'clock.

• A. for
• B. since (Correct)
• C. from
• D. by

Explanation: 'Since' is used with a point of time.

93. Neither the manager nor the workers _____ ready.

• A. is
• B. was
• C. are (Correct)
• D. has

Explanation: The verb agrees with the nearer subject, 'workers'.

94. By this time tomorrow, they _____ the journey.

• A. finish
• B. finished
• C. will finish
• D. will have finished (Correct)

Explanation: Future perfect is used for completion before a future point.

95. Choose the passive form: The police arrested the thief.

• A. The thief arrested by the police.
• B. The thief was arrested by the police. (Correct)
• C. The police was arrested by the thief.
• D. The thief is arrested by the police.

Explanation: Simple past passive uses was/were plus past participle.

96. Identify the error: The list of items are on the table.

• A. The list
• B. of items
• C. are (Correct)
• D. on the table

Explanation: 'List' is singular, so 'is' is correct.

97. He stayed at home _____ he was unwell.

• A. because (Correct)
• B. unless
• C. although
• D. till

Explanation: 'Because' correctly gives the reason.

98. Choose the best replacement: The officer asked me where did I live.

• A. where I lived (Correct)
• B. where do I live
• C. where I live?
• D. no improvement

Explanation: In indirect questions, the word order is subject + verb, and the tense shifts with the past reporting verb.

99. Nobody called you, _____?

• A. did they (Correct)
• B. did he
• C. didn't they
• D. wasn't it

Explanation: Negative indefinite pronouns take positive tags; 'they' is commonly used.

100. If I had more time, I _____ another chapter.

• A. read
• B. would read (Correct)
• C. will read
• D. would have read

Explanation: This is a second conditional structure.

101. She avoided _____ late.

• A. to arrive
• B. arrive
• C. arriving (Correct)
• D. arrived

Explanation: 'Avoid' is followed by a gerund.

102. Each candidate must bring _____ admit card.

• A. their
• B. his or her (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Formal singular agreement with 'each' takes 'his or her'.

103. 'Spill the beans' means:

• A. cook food
• B. reveal a secret (Correct)
• C. make a mess
• D. waste time

Explanation: It means to disclose something hidden.

104. 'In hot water' means:

• A. taking a bath
• B. in trouble (Correct)
• C. working in heat
• D. fully prepared

Explanation: The phrase means facing difficulty or blame.

105. If most details discuss pollution, recycling, and waste control, the paragraph is mainly about:

• A. transport rules
• B. environmental protection (Correct)
• C. festival planning
• D. village history

Explanation: The repeated supporting ideas point to environmental protection.

106. The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in:

• A. 1920
• B. 1930 (Correct)
• C. 1942
• D. 1919

Explanation: It was launched by Gandhi in 1930.

107. Bihu is the major festival of:

• A. Assam (Correct)
• B. Tripura
• C. Manipur
• D. Nagaland

Explanation: Bihu is the major festival of Assam.

108. The Sanchi Stupa is in:

• A. Madhya Pradesh (Correct)
• B. Uttar Pradesh
• C. Bihar
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: The Sanchi Stupa is located in Madhya Pradesh.

109. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:

• A. Part III
• B. Part IV (Correct)
• C. Part V
• D. Part VI

Explanation: Directive Principles are in Part IV of the Constitution.

110. The tax collected on goods and services is commonly known as:

• A. GST (Correct)
• B. FDI
• C. GDP
• D. MSP

Explanation: GST is the Goods and Services Tax.

111. Loktak Lake is located in:

• A. Manipur (Correct)
• B. Mizoram
• C. Assam
• D. Sikkim

Explanation: Loktak Lake is in Manipur.

112. The basic unit of life is the:

• A. tissue
• B. organ
• C. cell (Correct)
• D. atom

Explanation: The cell is the structural and functional unit of life.

113. Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

• A. Sardar Patel
• B. Jawaharlal Nehru
• C. Mahatma Gandhi
• D. B. R. Ambedkar (Correct)

Explanation: The correct answer is B. R. Ambedkar.

114. Who founded the Slave Dynasty in Delhi?

• A. Iltutmish
• B. Qutb-ud-din Aibak (Correct)
• C. Balban
• D. Alauddin Khalji

Explanation: Qutb-ud-din Aibak founded the Slave Dynasty.

115. Kathakali belongs to:

• A. Tamil Nadu
• B. Kerala (Correct)
• C. Karnataka
• D. Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: Kathakali is a classical dance-drama form of Kerala.

116. Buland Darwaza is located at:

• A. Agra Fort
• B. Fatehpur Sikri (Correct)
• C. Red Fort
• D. Golconda

Explanation: Buland Darwaza is the grand gateway at Fatehpur Sikri.

117. India is described in the Constitution as a:

• A. Unitary state only
• B. Union of States (Correct)
• C. Federation by treaty
• D. Kingdom

Explanation: Article 1 describes India as a Union of States.

118. Repo rate is associated with:

• A. Reserve Bank of India (Correct)
• B. Election Commission
• C. CAG
• D. Planning Commission

Explanation: Repo rate is a monetary policy rate set by RBI.

119. The capital of Rajasthan is:

• A. Udaipur
• B. Jodhpur
• C. Jaipur (Correct)
• D. Ajmer

Explanation: Jaipur is the capital of Rajasthan.

120. Which river is called the Dakshin Ganga?

• A. Krishna
• B. Kaveri
• C. Godavari (Correct)
• D. Narmada

Explanation: The correct answer is Godavari.

121. The First Battle of Panipat was fought in:

• A. 1526 (Correct)
• B. 1556
• C. 1761
• D. 1757

Explanation: The first Battle of Panipat took place in 1526.

122. Odissi dance belongs to:

• A. Odisha (Correct)
• B. Kerala
• C. Tamil Nadu
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: Odissi is the classical dance of Odisha.

123. The Red Fort is located in:

• A. Agra
• B. Delhi (Correct)
• C. Jaipur
• D. Lucknow

Explanation: The Red Fort is in Delhi.

124. The Supreme Court of India is located in:

• A. Mumbai
• B. New Delhi (Correct)
• C. Chennai
• D. Kolkata

Explanation: The Supreme Court is in New Delhi.

125. Deflation refers to:

• A. rise in prices
• B. fall in general price level (Correct)
• C. rise in tax only
• D. shortage of money only

Explanation: Deflation is the opposite of inflation.

126. The river Brahmaputra enters India through:

• A. Punjab
• B. Arunachal Pradesh (Correct)
• C. Sikkim
• D. Uttarakhand

Explanation: The Brahmaputra enters India through Arunachal Pradesh.

127. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

• A. 6
• B. 9
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 7

Explanation: The correct answer is 8.

128. Who started the Home Rule Movement in India along with Annie Besant?

• A. Lala Lajpat Rai
• B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Correct)
• C. Bipin Chandra Pal
• D. Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation: Tilak and Annie Besant were central to the Home Rule Movement.

129. Garba is mainly associated with:

• A. Punjab
• B. Gujarat (Correct)
• C. Odisha
• D. Bihar

Explanation: Garba is the famous folk dance of Gujarat.

130. The Taj Mahal is situated in:

• A. Jaipur
• B. Agra (Correct)
• C. Delhi
• D. Hyderabad

Explanation: The Taj Mahal is in Agra.

131. Which keyboard shortcut is used to print a Microsoft Word document?

• A. Ctrl + P (Correct)
• B. Ctrl + S
• C. Ctrl + V
• D. Ctrl + Z

Explanation: Ctrl + P opens the print command in Word.

132. What is the shortcut key to edit the contents of a selected cell in MS Excel?

• A. F2 (Correct)
• B. Ctrl + E
• C. Shift + Enter
• D. Ctrl + S

Explanation: F2 is the standard shortcut for editing the active cell.

133. Which shortcut is used to undo the last action?

• A. Ctrl + Z (Correct)
• B. Ctrl + X
• C. Ctrl + C
• D. Ctrl + Y

Explanation: Ctrl + Z is the standard Undo shortcut.

134. What is the shortcut to insert a new slide in PowerPoint?

• A. Ctrl + N
• B. Ctrl + M (Correct)
• C. Ctrl + D
• D. Ctrl + L

Explanation: Ctrl + M inserts a new slide in PowerPoint.

135. PowerPoint is mainly used to create:

• A. Databases
• B. Presentations (Correct)
• C. Antivirus tools
• D. Operating systems

Explanation: PowerPoint is presentation software.

136. Changing the appearance of text in a document is called:

• A. Booting
• B. Formatting (Correct)
• C. Scanning
• D. Routing

Explanation: Formatting changes font, size, style, and layout.

137. The full form of WWW is:

• A. World Wide Web (Correct)
• B. World Web Window
• C. Wide World Web
• D. Web World Wire

Explanation: WWW stands for World Wide Web.

138. Which of the following is a web browser?

• A. Google Chrome (Correct)
• B. MS Excel
• C. Windows Defender
• D. Oracle

Explanation: Google Chrome is software used to access websites.

139. Email stands for:

• A. Electric mail
• B. Electronic mail (Correct)
• C. Easy mail
• D. Encoded mail

Explanation: Email is short for electronic mail.

140. Which device forwards data packets between computer networks?

• A. Router (Correct)
• B. Mouse
• C. Scanner
• D. Plotter

Explanation: Routers direct packets between different networks.

141. URL stands for:

• A. Uniform Resource Locator (Correct)
• B. Universal Record Link
• C. Uniform Record Link
• D. Universal Resource List

Explanation: A URL is the address of a resource on the web.

142. LAN stands for:

• A. Large Area Network
• B. Local Area Network (Correct)
• C. Live Access Network
• D. Long Access Node

Explanation: LAN stands for Local Area Network.

143. Which service is commonly used to transfer files over the internet?

• A. FTP (Correct)
• B. CPU
• C. RAM
• D. ALU

Explanation: FTP stands for File Transfer Protocol.

144. Google is best described as a:

• A. Spreadsheet
• B. Search engine (Correct)
• C. Programming language
• D. Printer driver

Explanation: Google is a search engine.

145. HTTPS is more secure than HTTP because it:

• A. Uses larger monitors
• B. Encrypts data transfer (Correct)
• C. Blocks all websites
• D. Works without internet

Explanation: HTTPS uses encryption for safer data exchange.

146. Uploading a file means:

• A. Downloading data from the internet
• B. Sending data from your device to another system or server (Correct)
• C. Deleting browser history
• D. Compressing software

Explanation: Uploading transfers files from the local device to a remote system.

147. The last part of an email address after @ usually represents the:

• A. Password
• B. Domain name (Correct)
• C. Printer type
• D. Operating system

Explanation: The portion after @ identifies the mail domain.

148. Which of the following is NOT a browser?

• A. Firefox
• B. Edge
• C. Excel (Correct)
• D. Chrome

Explanation: Excel is a spreadsheet application, not a web browser.

149. Downloading means:

• A. Sending files from device to server
• B. Receiving files from internet to device (Correct)
• C. Deleting stored files
• D. Formatting a drive

Explanation: Downloading transfers data from a remote system to the local device.

150. Typing keywords into Google is an example of using a:

• A. Compiler
• B. Search engine (Correct)
• C. Spreadsheet
• D. Firewall

Explanation: Google is used as a search engine to locate web information.