SSC CHSL 2026 Tier I Full Mock Test 4

1. In a standard dice, which number is opposite to 1?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 5
• D. 6 (Correct)

Explanation: In a standard dice, opposite faces add to 7.

2. In a standard dice, which number is opposite to 3?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 6

Explanation: Opposite faces add to 7, so 3 is opposite 4.

3. A cube has 6 faces, 12 edges and how many vertices?

• A. 6
• B. 8 (Correct)
• C. 10
• D. 12

Explanation: A cube has 8 vertices.

4. A cube is painted on all faces and cut into 27 equal small cubes. How many small cubes have three painted faces?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 12

Explanation: Only corner cubes have three painted faces, and a cube has 8 corners.

5. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 64 equal cubes. How many small cubes have no painted face?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 12

Explanation: For 4 x 4 x 4 cutting, inner unpainted cubes = (4-2)^3 = 8.

6. If 2 is opposite 5 and 3 is opposite 4 on a dice, which number is opposite 1?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4
• D. 6 (Correct)

Explanation: The remaining pair is 1 and 6.

7. How many edges does a cube have?

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 12 (Correct)
• D. 14

Explanation: A cube has 12 edges.

8. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 125 equal cubes. How many have exactly two painted faces?

• A. 24
• B. 30
• C. 36 (Correct)
• D. 40

Explanation: For 5 divisions per edge, exactly two painted faces = 12 x (5-2) = 36.

9. Two opposite faces of a dice cannot be seen together in one view. If 1, 2 and 3 are visible together, which pair is definitely not opposite?

• A. 1 and 2 (Correct)
• B. 1 and 6
• C. 2 and 5
• D. 3 and 4

Explanation: Faces visible together are adjacent, so 1 and 2 are definitely not opposite.

10. A cube has how many faces?

• A. 4
• B. 5
• C. 6 (Correct)
• D. 8

Explanation: A cube has six square faces.

11. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 8 equal cubes. How many small cubes have three painted faces?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 12

Explanation: With 2 cuts per edge, all 8 small cubes are corner cubes with three painted faces.

12. If 1 is opposite 6 and 2 is opposite 5 on a dice, which number is opposite 3?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 6

Explanation: The remaining opposite pair is 3 and 4.

13. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 216 equal cubes. How many small cubes have no painted face?

• A. 64 (Correct)
• B. 80
• C. 96
• D. 100

Explanation: 216 = 6^3, so inner unpainted cubes = (6 - 2)^3 = 64.

14. If two faces visible together are 2 and 4, what can be concluded?

• A. They are adjacent (Correct)
• B. They are opposite
• C. Both are top faces
• D. They are equal

Explanation: Faces visible together in one view of a dice are adjacent, not opposite.

15. How many corner cubes are there in any large cube cut into smaller equal cubes?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 12

Explanation: Every cube has 8 corners, so there are 8 corner cubes.

16. A vertical mirror is placed to the right of the word CAT. Which letter changes shape in the mirror image?

• A. C (Correct)
• B. A
• C. T
• D. None

Explanation: C reverses direction in a vertical mirror image.

17. In a vertical mirror, the left side of an object appears on the:

• A. Left
• B. Right (Correct)
• C. Top
• D. Bottom

Explanation: A vertical mirror reverses left and right.

18. A square paper is folded once vertically and punched at the centre of the folded edge. On opening, how many holes appear?

• A. 1
• B. 2 (Correct)
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: One fold creates two symmetric holes after opening.

19. A triangle hidden inside a larger star-like figure is an example of which question type?

• A. Mirror image
• B. Embedded figure (Correct)
• C. Calendar
• D. Syllogism

Explanation: The task asks to locate a simple figure hidden in a complex figure.

20. If a figure rotates 90 degrees clockwise in each step, after four steps it will be:

• A. Same as original (Correct)
• B. Opposite
• C. Mirror image
• D. Upside down only

Explanation: Four rotations of 90 degrees make a full 360-degree turn.

21. A water image mainly reverses an object in which direction?

• A. Left-right
• B. Top-bottom (Correct)
• C. Both always
• D. No reversal

Explanation: A water image is a vertical reflection, reversing top and bottom.

22. A paper folded twice and punched once can produce how many holes at most when opened?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 5

Explanation: Two folds can create four layers, so one punch can make four holes.

23. In a plane mirror, the image of an object is generally:

• A. Laterally inverted (Correct)
• B. Smaller always
• C. Larger always
• D. Rotated by 90 degrees

Explanation: Plane mirrors produce lateral inversion.

24. Finding the missing part that completes a symmetric pattern belongs to:

• A. Figure completion (Correct)
• B. Blood relation
• C. Profit loss
• D. Clock

Explanation: The question asks for completion of a visual pattern.

25. If a shape sequence alternates circle, square, triangle, circle, square, then the next shape is:

• A. Circle
• B. Square
• C. Triangle (Correct)
• D. Rectangle

Explanation: The sequence repeats in the order circle, square, triangle.

26. The Chief Election Commissioner belongs to which body?

• A. UPSC
• B. Election Commission of India (Correct)
• C. Finance Commission
• D. NITI Aayog

Explanation: The CEC heads the Election Commission of India.

27. SEBI regulates the:

• A. bank branches
• B. stock market (Correct)
• C. railways
• D. agriculture census

Explanation: SEBI regulates India's securities market.

28. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:

• A. Lok Sabha
• B. Rajya Sabha (Correct)
• C. Supreme Court
• D. NITI Aayog

Explanation: The Vice-President serves as Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

29. The tax collected on goods and services is commonly known as:

• A. GST (Correct)
• B. FDI
• C. GDP
• D. MSP

Explanation: GST is the Goods and Services Tax.

30. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:

• A. Part III
• B. Part IV (Correct)
• C. Part V
• D. Part VI

Explanation: Directive Principles are in Part IV of the Constitution.

31. Repo rate is associated with:

• A. Reserve Bank of India (Correct)
• B. Election Commission
• C. CAG
• D. Planning Commission

Explanation: Repo rate is a monetary policy rate set by RBI.

32. India is described in the Constitution as a:

• A. Unitary state only
• B. Union of States (Correct)
• C. Federation by treaty
• D. Kingdom

Explanation: Article 1 describes India as a Union of States.

33. Deflation refers to:

• A. rise in prices
• B. fall in general price level (Correct)
• C. rise in tax only
• D. shortage of money only

Explanation: Deflation is the opposite of inflation.

34. The Supreme Court of India is located in:

• A. Mumbai
• B. New Delhi (Correct)
• C. Chennai
• D. Kolkata

Explanation: The Supreme Court is in New Delhi.

35. FDI stands for:

• A. Foreign Direct Investment (Correct)
• B. Federal Domestic Income
• C. Free Duty Import
• D. Financial Development Index

Explanation: FDI means Foreign Direct Investment.

36. The term of the President of India is:

• A. 4 years
• B. 5 years (Correct)
• C. 6 years
• D. 7 years

Explanation: The President's term is five years.

37. A subsidy generally means:

• A. government financial support (Correct)
• B. bank penalty
• C. new tax
• D. private donation only

Explanation: A subsidy is financial assistance provided by the government.

38. The head of the Union Council of Ministers is the:

• A. President
• B. Prime Minister (Correct)
• C. Chief Justice
• D. Governor

Explanation: The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers.

39. Fundamental Duties were added by the:

• A. 42nd Amendment (Correct)
• B. 44th Amendment
• C. 73rd Amendment
• D. 86th Amendment

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.

40. MSP stands for:

• A. Minimum Support Price (Correct)
• B. Maximum Sale Price
• C. Market Security Policy
• D. Multi State Plan

Explanation: MSP means Minimum Support Price.

41. The longest river in India is generally taken as:

• A. Godavari
• B. Ganga (Correct)
• C. Yamuna
• D. Narmada

Explanation: In standard Indian GK usage, Ganga is treated as the longest river in India.

42. The desert located in western India is:

• A. Sahara
• B. Thar (Correct)
• C. Gobi
• D. Kalahari

Explanation: The Thar Desert lies in western India.

43. The powerhouse of the cell is:

• A. nucleus
• B. mitochondria (Correct)
• C. ribosome
• D. lysosome

Explanation: Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell.

44. The chemical symbol of gold is:

• A. Ag
• B. Au (Correct)
• C. Gd
• D. Go

Explanation: Gold has the symbol Au.

45. Plants prepare food by:

• A. respiration
• B. digestion
• C. photosynthesis (Correct)
• D. excretion

Explanation: Plants make food by photosynthesis.

46. Vitamin C deficiency causes:

• A. rickets
• B. scurvy (Correct)
• C. night blindness
• D. goitre

Explanation: Scurvy is caused by deficiency of Vitamin C.

47. The speed of light is greatest in:

• A. water
• B. glass
• C. vacuum (Correct)
• D. air only

Explanation: Light travels fastest in vacuum.

48. The largest ocean on Earth is:

• A. Atlantic
• B. Indian
• C. Pacific (Correct)
• D. Arctic

Explanation: The Pacific Ocean is the largest.

49. The gas used in fire extinguishers is often:

• A. oxygen
• B. carbon dioxide (Correct)
• C. hydrogen
• D. helium

Explanation: Carbon dioxide is commonly used in many fire extinguishers.

50. The human heart has _____ chambers.

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 5

Explanation: The heart has four chambers.

51. A value increases from 400 to 440. Increase percent is:

• A. 5%
• B. 8%
• C. 10% (Correct)
• D. 12%

Explanation: Increase is 40 on base 400.

52. A price falls from 500 to 450. Decrease percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease is 50 on base 500.

53. A student gets 315 out of 420. Percentage marks are:

• A. 70%
• B. 75% (Correct)
• C. 80%
• D. 85%

Explanation: 315/420 x 100 = 75%.

54. Population rises from 8000 to 8800. Increase percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Increase is 800 on 8000.

55. If income is 3000 and expenditure is 2400, expenditure percent of income is:

• A. 70%
• B. 75%
• C. 80% (Correct)
• D. 85%

Explanation: 2400/3000 x 100 = 80%.

56. A number increases by 10% and then by 20%. Net increase is:

• A. 28%
• B. 30%
• C. 32% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: Net factor = 1.1 x 1.2 = 1.32.

57. 7/20 as a percent is:

• A. 30%
• B. 35% (Correct)
• C. 40%
• D. 45%

Explanation: 7/20 x 100 = 35%.

58. CP = 600 and SP = 720. Profit percent is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 22%

Explanation: Profit = 120, so 120/600 x 100 = 20%.

59. Marked price 2000 with 10% discount gives selling price:

• A. 1700
• B. 1750
• C. 1800 (Correct)
• D. 1850

Explanation: 10% of 2000 is 200.

60. If boys:girls = 4:1 in a class, percentage of girls is:

• A. 10%
• B. 15%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Girls are 1 out of total 5 parts.

61. After a 20% increase, a number becomes 360. Original number was:

• A. 280
• B. 300 (Correct)
• C. 320
• D. 340

Explanation: Original x 1.2 = 360.

62. If 144 students out of 180 pass, pass percentage is:

• A. 70%
• B. 75%
• C. 80% (Correct)
• D. 85%

Explanation: 144/180 x 100 = 80%.

63. A is 25% more than B. B is what percent less than A?

• A. 15%
• B. 20% (Correct)
• C. 25%
• D. 30%

Explanation: If B=100, A=125, so reduction is 25/125.

64. A value rises from 250 to 300. Increase percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 15%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Increase is 50 on base 250.

65. A price falls from 800 to 720. Decrease percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease is 80 on 800.

66. A student scores 270 out of 360. Percentage marks are:

• A. 70%
• B. 72%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 80%

Explanation: 270/360 x 100 = 75%.

67. Population grows from 5000 to 5500. Increase percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Increase = 500, so 500/5000 x 100 = 10%.

68. If income is Rs. 4000 and expenditure is Rs. 3000, expenditure percent of income is:

• A. 70%
• B. 75% (Correct)
• C. 80%
• D. 85%

Explanation: 3000/4000 x 100 = 75%.

69. A value increases by 20% and then by 10%. Net increase is:

• A. 28%
• B. 30%
• C. 32% (Correct)
• D. 34%

Explanation: 1.2 x 1.1 = 1.32, so net increase is 32%.

70. 3/5 as a percent is:

• A. 50%
• B. 55%
• C. 60% (Correct)
• D. 65%

Explanation: 3/5 x 100 = 60%.

71. CP = 500 and SP = 600. Profit percent is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 22%

Explanation: Profit = 100, so 100/500 x 100 = 20%.

72. Marked price Rs. 1500 with 20% discount gives selling price:

• A. 1100
• B. 1150
• C. 1200 (Correct)
• D. 1250

Explanation: Discount = Rs. 300, so SP = Rs. 1200.

73. If boys:girls = 3:2 in a class, percentage of girls is:

• A. 35%
• B. 40% (Correct)
• C. 45%
• D. 50%

Explanation: Girls are 2 out of total 5 parts.

74. After a 25% increase, a number becomes 500. Original number was:

• A. 350
• B. 375
• C. 400 (Correct)
• D. 425

Explanation: Original x 1.25 = 500.

75. If 96 students out of 120 pass, pass percentage is:

• A. 75%
• B. 80% (Correct)
• C. 82%
• D. 85%

Explanation: 96/120 x 100 = 80%.

76. Identify the error: The list of items are on the table.

• A. The list
• B. of items
• C. are (Correct)
• D. on the table

Explanation: 'List' is singular, so 'is' is correct.

77. He stayed at home _____ he was unwell.

• A. because (Correct)
• B. unless
• C. although
• D. till

Explanation: 'Because' correctly gives the reason.

78. You _____ wear a helmet while riding.

• A. should (Correct)
• B. might
• C. used to
• D. can be

Explanation: 'Should' expresses advice or obligation.

79. He can solve it, _____?

• A. can't he (Correct)
• B. can he
• C. doesn't he
• D. isn't he

Explanation: The positive statement takes a negative tag.

80. If I had more time, I _____ another chapter.

• A. read
• B. would read (Correct)
• C. will read
• D. would have read

Explanation: This is a second conditional structure.

81. She avoided _____ late.

• A. to arrive
• B. arrive
• C. arriving (Correct)
• D. arrived

Explanation: 'Avoid' is followed by a gerund.

82. Each candidate must bring _____ admit card.

• A. their
• B. his or her (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Formal singular agreement with 'each' takes 'his or her'.

83. He answered the question _____.

• A. correct
• B. correctly (Correct)
• C. more correct
• D. correction

Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify the verb.

84. Choose the correct article: It was _____ unusual experience.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Unusual begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is correct.

85. Neither the principal nor the teachers _____ present.

• A. is
• B. was
• C. are (Correct)
• D. has

Explanation: With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject 'teachers'.

86. Choose the passive form: They have completed the form.

• A. The form has completed.
• B. The form has been completed. (Correct)
• C. The form was completed.
• D. The form is completed.

Explanation: Present perfect passive uses has/have been plus past participle.

87. He has been waiting here _____ 9 o'clock.

• A. for
• B. since (Correct)
• C. from
• D. by

Explanation: 'Since' is used with a point of time.

88. If I were rich, I _____ a library.

• A. build
• B. built
• C. would build (Correct)
• D. will build

Explanation: Second conditional uses 'would' with the base verb.

89. Identify the incorrect part: The list of selected candidates / have been uploaded / on the official website / no error.

• A. The list of selected candidates
• B. have been uploaded (Correct)
• C. on the official website
• D. no error

Explanation: The main subject is singular: 'list'. The correct verb is 'has been uploaded'.

90. Choose the best replacement: The officer asked me where did I live.

• A. where I lived (Correct)
• B. where do I live
• C. where I live?
• D. no improvement

Explanation: In indirect questions, the word order is subject + verb, and the tense shifts with the past reporting verb.

91. Choose the best word: The report was rejected because it was not _____ with the prescribed format.

• A. complied
• B. consistent (Correct)
• C. insisting
• D. dependent

Explanation: 'Consistent with' means in agreement with a standard or format.

92. Choose the active form: The files must be verified before noon.

• A. Someone must verify the files before noon. (Correct)
• B. The files must verify someone before noon.
• C. Someone verified the files before noon.
• D. The files are verifying before noon.

Explanation: Modal passive 'must be verified' changes to active 'must verify'.

93. Choose the indirect form: He said, 'Let us review the answer key again.'

• A. He suggested that they should review the answer key again. (Correct)
• B. He said that they review the answer key again.
• C. He requested that they reviewed the answer key again.
• D. He ordered they review the answer key again.

Explanation: 'Let us' used as a proposal is commonly reported with 'suggested that ... should'.

94. Choose the correct article: He waited for _____ hour before the gate opened.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Hour begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is correct.

95. The bouquet of roses _____ on the table.

• A. are
• B. were
• C. is (Correct)
• D. have

Explanation: The main subject is 'bouquet', which is singular.

96. By the time we reached, the guests _____ dinner.

• A. finish
• B. finished
• C. had finished (Correct)
• D. have finished

Explanation: Past perfect is used for the earlier of two past actions.

97. Choose the passive form: The team has completed the survey.

• A. The survey has completed.
• B. The survey has been completed. (Correct)
• C. The survey had completed.
• D. The survey is being completed.

Explanation: Present perfect passive uses has/have been plus past participle.

98. Identify the error: Neither the players nor the coach have arrived.

• A. Neither
• B. the players
• C. have arrived (Correct)
• D. no error

Explanation: The verb agrees with the nearer subject 'coach', so 'has arrived' is correct.

99. He missed the bus _____ he woke up late.

• A. because (Correct)
• B. although
• C. unless
• D. whereas

Explanation: 'Because' correctly shows reason.

100. Choose the best replacement: She is married with a doctor.

• A. married to a doctor (Correct)
• B. married by a doctor
• C. married for a doctor
• D. no improvement

Explanation: The correct phrase is 'married to'.