SSC CHSL Tier 1 Full Mock Test 2

1. Statements: Some lamps are bulbs. No bulb is a tube. Conclusion: Some lamps are not tubes.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. Cannot say
• D. Either

Explanation: The lamps that are bulbs cannot be tubes.

2. Statements: All keys are locks. Some locks are doors. Conclusions: I. Some keys are doors. II. Some locks are keys.

• A. Only I follows
• B. Only II follows (Correct)
• C. Both follow
• D. Neither follows

Explanation: All keys are locks, so some locks are keys. No definite link exists between keys and doors.

3. Statements: No paper is cloth. All cloth are sheets. Conclusion: Some sheets are not papers.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. May follow
• D. Either

Explanation: All cloth are sheets, and no cloth is paper, so those sheets are not papers.

4. Statements: All apples are fruits. Some fruits are sweet. Conclusion: All apples are sweet.

• A. Follows
• B. Does not follow (Correct)
• C. Cannot say
• D. Both

Explanation: Only some fruits are sweet; apples are not definitely included in that part.

5. Statements: Only chairs are tables. Some chairs are wooden. Conclusion: Some tables are wooden.

• A. Follows
• B. Does not follow (Correct)
• C. Cannot say
• D. Either

Explanation: Only chairs are tables means every table is a chair, but wooden chairs need not be tables.

6. Five people A, B, C, D and E sit in a row facing north. B is immediately left of C. A is at the left end. D is immediately right of C. Who sits in the middle?

• A. B
• B. C (Correct)
• C. D
• D. E

Explanation: The order starts A, then B-C-D consecutively; C is in the middle position.

7. P, Q, R, S sit in a row. Q is not at an end. P is left of Q. R is right of S. If S is at the left end, who is second from left?

• A. P (Correct)
• B. Q
• C. R
• D. S

Explanation: S is first. Since R is right of S and P is left of Q, the possible order is S-P-Q-R.

8. Four friends sit around a circular table facing centre. A is opposite C and B is to the immediate right of A. Who is opposite B?

• A. A
• B. C
• C. D (Correct)
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: With A opposite C, B on A's right leaves D opposite B.

9. Six people sit in a row. M is third from the left and N is second from the right. How many people sit between M and N?

• A. 0
• B. 1 (Correct)
• C. 2
• D. 3

Explanation: In six places, M is position 3 and N is position 5, so one person sits between them.

10. A, B, C, D, E sit in a row. C is exactly between A and E. A is second from the left and E is fourth from the left. Where is C?

• A. First
• B. Second
• C. Third (Correct)
• D. Fifth

Explanation: C is exactly between positions 2 and 4, so C is at position 3.

11. In a circle facing centre, X sits immediately left of Y. Z sits opposite Y. Who is immediately right of X if four people sit?

• A. Y
• B. Z
• C. W (Correct)
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: With four people, if X is left of Y, the remaining adjacent on X's other side is W.

12. Seven students sit in a row. R is fourth from the left. What is R's position from the right?

• A. 3rd
• B. 4th (Correct)
• C. 5th
• D. 6th

Explanation: Position from right = 7 - 4 + 1 = 4.

13. A is to the immediate left of B. C is to the immediate right of B. Which person is between A and C?

• A. A
• B. B (Correct)
• C. C
• D. None

Explanation: The order is A-B-C.

14. P lives above Q but below R in a three-floor building. Who lives on the top floor?

• A. P
• B. Q
• C. R (Correct)
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: The order from bottom to top is Q, P, R.

15. Five people sit in a row facing north. A is left of B but right of C. D is at the right end. E is at the left end. Who sits in the middle?

• A. A (Correct)
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D

Explanation: E is first and D is fifth. Since C-A-B must be in order, A occupies the middle seat.

16. Six people sit in a row. A is immediately right of B. C is immediately left of B. Who is between A and C?

• A. A
• B. B (Correct)
• C. C
• D. Cannot be determined

Explanation: The consecutive order is C-B-A, so B is between C and A.

17. Five people sit around a circular table facing centre. P is immediate left of Q and R is immediate right of Q. Who are Q's neighbours?

• A. P and R (Correct)
• B. P and S
• C. R and T
• D. S and T

Explanation: The immediate left and immediate right of Q are P and R.

18. In a four-floor building, A lives above B, C lives below B, and D lives above A. Who lives on the top floor?

• A. A
• B. B
• C. C
• D. D (Correct)

Explanation: The order from bottom to top is C, B, A, D.

19. Nine persons sit in a row. T is fifth from the left. What is T's position from the right?

• A. 4th
• B. 5th (Correct)
• C. 6th
• D. 7th

Explanation: Right position = 9 - 5 + 1 = 5.

20. A, B, C, D and E sit in a row facing north. D is second from the right. C is left of D but right of A. B is at the left end. Who sits third from the left?

• A. A
• B. C (Correct)
• C. D
• D. E

Explanation: B is first and D is fourth. With A left of C and C right of A before D, C is third.

21. If 1 January is Monday, what day will 8 January be?

• A. Monday (Correct)
• B. Tuesday
• C. Sunday
• D. Wednesday

Explanation: After 7 days, the same weekday repeats.

22. How many odd days are there in a normal year?

• A. 0
• B. 1 (Correct)
• C. 2
• D. 3

Explanation: 365 days = 52 weeks + 1 odd day.

23. How many odd days are there in a leap year?

• A. 1
• B. 2 (Correct)
• C. 3
• D. 4

Explanation: 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 odd days.

24. Find the angle between hour and minute hands at 3:00.

• A. 60°
• B. 75°
• C. 90° (Correct)
• D. 120°

Explanation: At 3:00, the hands are 3 hour marks apart. 3 x 30° = 90°.

25. Find the angle between hands at 6:00.

• A. 90°
• B. 120°
• C. 150°
• D. 180° (Correct)

Explanation: At 6:00, the hands are opposite.

26. The Sanchi Stupa is located in:

• A. Madhya Pradesh (Correct)
• B. Bihar
• C. Uttar Pradesh
• D. Rajasthan

Explanation: Sanchi is in Madhya Pradesh.

27. The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in:

• A. 1920
• B. 1930 (Correct)
• C. 1942
• D. 1919

Explanation: It was launched by Gandhi in 1930.

28. Who founded the Slave Dynasty in Delhi?

• A. Iltutmish
• B. Qutb-ud-din Aibak (Correct)
• C. Balban
• D. Alauddin Khalji

Explanation: Qutb-ud-din Aibak founded the Slave Dynasty.

29. The First Battle of Panipat was fought in:

• A. 1526 (Correct)
• B. 1556
• C. 1761
• D. 1757

Explanation: The first Battle of Panipat took place in 1526.

30. Kuchipudi is mainly associated with:

• A. Andhra Pradesh (Correct)
• B. Odisha
• C. Punjab
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: Kuchipudi originated in Andhra Pradesh.

31. 'Gitanjali' is associated with:

• A. Rabindranath Tagore (Correct)
• B. Premchand
• C. Nehru
• D. Bankim Chandra

Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore wrote Gitanjali.

32. Who started the Home Rule Movement in India along with Annie Besant?

• A. Lala Lajpat Rai
• B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Correct)
• C. Bipin Chandra Pal
• D. Dadabhai Naoroji

Explanation: Tilak and Annie Besant were central to the Home Rule Movement.

33. The classical dance Mohiniyattam belongs to:

• A. Kerala (Correct)
• B. Tamil Nadu
• C. Odisha
• D. Assam

Explanation: Mohiniyattam is the classical dance form of Kerala.

34. 'My Experiments with Truth' is associated with:

• A. Mahatma Gandhi (Correct)
• B. Subhas Bose
• C. Tagore
• D. Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: It is Gandhi's autobiography.

35. The India Gate is located in:

• A. Delhi (Correct)
• B. Agra
• C. Bhopal
• D. Jaipur

Explanation: India Gate is in New Delhi.

36. The Simon Commission came to India in:

• A. 1925
• B. 1927
• C. 1928 (Correct)
• D. 1930

Explanation: The Simon Commission reached India in 1928.

37. The festival Onam is celebrated mainly in:

• A. Kerala (Correct)
• B. Tamil Nadu
• C. Karnataka
• D. Assam

Explanation: Onam is the major harvest festival of Kerala.

38. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian state?

• A. Sarojini Naidu (Correct)
• B. Indira Gandhi
• C. Sucheta Kripalani
• D. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu became the Governor of Uttar Pradesh.

39. The Charminar is located in:

• A. Hyderabad (Correct)
• B. Lucknow
• C. Mysuru
• D. Aurangabad

Explanation: Charminar is the famous landmark of Hyderabad.

40. The Cripps Mission came to India in:

• A. 1940
• B. 1941
• C. 1942 (Correct)
• D. 1945

Explanation: The Cripps Mission visited India in 1942.

41. The Revolt of 1857 first broke out at:

• A. Meerut (Correct)
• B. Kanpur
• C. Jhansi
• D. Barrackpore

Explanation: The uprising began at Meerut in May 1857.

42. Bharatanatyam is primarily associated with:

• A. Kerala
• B. Tamil Nadu (Correct)
• C. Odisha
• D. Assam

Explanation: Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu.

43. The Sun Temple of Konark is in:

• A. Odisha (Correct)
• B. Bihar
• C. Madhya Pradesh
• D. Rajasthan

Explanation: Konark Sun Temple is located in Odisha.

44. Bihu is the major festival of:

• A. Assam (Correct)
• B. Tripura
• C. Manipur
• D. Nagaland

Explanation: Bihu is the major festival of Assam.

45. The Sanchi Stupa is in:

• A. Madhya Pradesh (Correct)
• B. Uttar Pradesh
• C. Bihar
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: The Sanchi Stupa is located in Madhya Pradesh.

46. Who presided over the Lahore Session of the Congress in 1929?

• A. Mahatma Gandhi
• B. Subhas Chandra Bose
• C. Jawaharlal Nehru (Correct)
• D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru presided over the Lahore Session of 1929.

47. Kathakali belongs to:

• A. Tamil Nadu
• B. Kerala (Correct)
• C. Karnataka
• D. Andhra Pradesh

Explanation: Kathakali is a classical dance-drama form of Kerala.

48. Who gave the call 'Do or Die'?

• A. Nehru
• B. Gandhi (Correct)
• C. Patel
• D. Tilak

Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi gave the call during the Quit India Movement.

49. Buland Darwaza is located at:

• A. Agra Fort
• B. Fatehpur Sikri (Correct)
• C. Red Fort
• D. Golconda

Explanation: Buland Darwaza is the grand gateway at Fatehpur Sikri.

50. The Cabinet Mission came to India in:

• A. 1942
• B. 1944
• C. 1946 (Correct)
• D. 1947

Explanation: The Cabinet Mission came to India in 1946.

51. A number is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. The net effect is:

• A. 0% (Correct)
• B. 5% increase
• C. 5% decrease
• D. 10% decrease

Explanation: 100 → 125 → 100, so net effect is zero.

52. If the cost price is 400 and profit is 80, profit percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 15%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: 80/400 × 100 = 20%.

53. In an exam, a student gets 36% and fails by 8 marks, while another gets 44% and passes by 8 marks. Maximum marks are:

• A. 150
• B. 160
• C. 175
• D. 200 (Correct)

Explanation: Difference in percentage = 8%, difference in marks = 16. So 100% = 16/8 × 100 = 200.

54. A value is decreased by 20% and then by 10%. Net decrease is:

• A. 28% (Correct)
• B. 30%
• C. 32%
• D. 35%

Explanation: 100 → 80 → 72, so net decrease is 28%.

55. If x is 40% of y, then y is what percent of x?

• A. 150%
• B. 200%
• C. 250% (Correct)
• D. 300%

Explanation: If x = 40 and y = 100, then y/x × 100 = 250%.

56. 40% of 250 is:

• A. 80
• B. 90
• C. 100 (Correct)
• D. 110

Explanation: 40% of 250 = 100.

57. A quantity increases from 80 to 100. The percentage increase is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 40%

Explanation: Increase = 20 on base 80, so 20/80 x 100 = 25%.

58. A price falls from 500 to 450. The percentage decrease is:

• A. 5%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease = 50 on base 500, so 10%.

59. A student scores 180 out of 240. The percentage is:

• A. 70%
• B. 75% (Correct)
• C. 80%
• D. 85%

Explanation: 180/240 x 100 = 75%.

60. Population rises by 10% from 2000. New population is:

• A. 2100
• B. 2200 (Correct)
• C. 2300
• D. 2400

Explanation: 10% of 2000 is 200, so new population = 2200.

61. If a man spends 60% of his income, he saves:

• A. 20%
• B. 30%
• C. 35%
• D. 40% (Correct)

Explanation: Savings percentage = 100% - 60% = 40%.

62. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. Net change is:

• A. No change
• B. 4% decrease (Correct)
• C. 4% increase
• D. 8% decrease

Explanation: 1.2 x 0.8 = 0.96, so net 4% decrease.

63. If A is 25% more than B, then B is what percent less than A?

• A. 20% (Correct)
• B. 25%
• C. 30%
• D. 33 1/3%

Explanation: If A = 125 and B = 100, B is 25 less than 125, i.e. 20%.

64. 5% of 640 is:

• A. 16
• B. 24
• C. 32 (Correct)
• D. 40

Explanation: 10% of 640 is 64, so 5% is 32.

65. Income is 5000 and expenditure is 3500. Savings percent on income is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25%
• C. 30% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: Savings = 1500, so 1500/5000 x 100 = 30%.

66. If a number after increasing by 25% becomes 150, the original number was:

• A. 100
• B. 110
• C. 120 (Correct)
• D. 125

Explanation: Original x 1.25 = 150, so original = 150/1.25 = 120.

67. Water in a solution is 30%. In 200 litres solution, water is:

• A. 40 litres
• B. 50 litres
• C. 60 litres (Correct)
• D. 70 litres

Explanation: 30% of 200 = 60 litres.

68. Salary rises from 20000 to 23000. Increase percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 12%
• C. 15% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Increase = 3000 on base 20000, so 15%.

69. A number decreases from 150 to 120. Percentage decrease is:

• A. 15%
• B. 20% (Correct)
• C. 25%
• D. 30%

Explanation: Decrease = 30 on base 150, so 20%.

70. A candidate needs 35% to pass. Out of 400 marks, he gets 126. He fails by:

• A. 10
• B. 12
• C. 14 (Correct)
• D. 16

Explanation: Passing marks = 35% of 400 = 140, so shortfall = 14.

71. 30% of 500 is:

• A. 120
• B. 130
• C. 140
• D. 150 (Correct)

Explanation: 30% of 500 = 150.

72. A value rises from 200 to 260. Percentage increase is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25%
• C. 30% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: Increase = 60 on base 200, so 30%.

73. A price falls from 800 to 720. Percentage decrease is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease = 80 on base 800, so 10%.

74. A candidate scores 225 out of 300. Percentage is:

• A. 70%
• B. 72%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 78%

Explanation: 225/300 x 100 = 75%.

75. Population decreases by 5% from 4000. New population is:

• A. 3600
• B. 3700
• C. 3800 (Correct)
• D. 3900

Explanation: 5% of 4000 is 200, so new population = 3800.

76. She is your cousin, _____?

• A. isn't she (Correct)
• B. doesn't she
• C. wasn't she
• D. is she

Explanation: The auxiliary 'is' becomes negative in the tag.

77. If I were the manager, I _____ the policy.

• A. change
• B. changed
• C. would change (Correct)
• D. will change

Explanation: This is a second conditional sentence.

78. He made me _____ the letter twice.

• A. to read
• B. reading
• C. read (Correct)
• D. reads

Explanation: 'Make' is followed by the base verb in active voice.

79. Everyone should finish _____ assignment before lunch.

• A. their
• B. his or her (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Formal singular agreement with 'everyone' takes 'his or her'.

80. Mount Everest is _____ peak in the world.

• A. high
• B. higher
• C. the highest (Correct)
• D. most high

Explanation: A superlative is required.

81. She waited for _____ hour before boarding.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Hour begins with a vowel sound.

82. The child was angry _____ his friend.

• A. with (Correct)
• B. to
• C. for
• D. at

Explanation: The usual expression is 'angry with someone'.

83. The list of candidates _____ been displayed.

• A. have
• B. has (Correct)
• C. were
• D. are

Explanation: The subject 'list' is singular.

84. By the time we arrived, the movie _____.

• A. starts
• B. had started (Correct)
• C. has started
• D. will start

Explanation: Past perfect shows the earlier of two past actions.

85. Choose the passive form: Someone has stolen my bag.

• A. My bag has stolen.
• B. My bag has been stolen. (Correct)
• C. My bag was stealing.
• D. My bag had stolen.

Explanation: Present perfect passive uses has/have been plus past participle.

86. Identify the error: Neither of the answers are correct.

• A. Neither
• B. of the answers
• C. are correct (Correct)
• D. no error

Explanation: 'Neither' is singular, so 'is correct' is required.

87. He stayed at home _____ it was raining.

• A. because (Correct)
• B. although
• C. unless
• D. until

Explanation: The reason is introduced by 'because'.

88. Choose the best replacement: She prefers tea than coffee.

• A. prefers tea to coffee (Correct)
• B. prefers tea over coffee than
• C. prefers tea more than coffee
• D. no improvement

Explanation: The correct pattern is 'prefer A to B'.

89. You can solve this, _____?

• A. can you
• B. can't you (Correct)
• C. don't you
• D. won't you

Explanation: Positive statement takes a negative tag with the same auxiliary.

90. If she studies regularly, she _____ the exam.

• A. passes
• B. will pass (Correct)
• C. would pass
• D. had passed

Explanation: A first conditional uses present in the if-clause and future in the main clause.

91. I look forward to _____ from you.

• A. hear
• B. heard
• C. hearing (Correct)
• D. have heard

Explanation: 'Look forward to' takes a gerund.

92. Every player must carry _____ own ID card.

• A. their
• B. his (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Traditional singular agreement takes 'his' here in exam grammar style.

93. He spoke so _____ that everyone understood him.

• A. clear
• B. clearly (Correct)
• C. more clear
• D. clearest

Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify 'spoke'.

94. By next Monday, she _____ the report.

• A. completes
• B. completed
• C. will have completed (Correct)
• D. has completed

Explanation: Future perfect is used for an action completed before a future time.

95. Each of the players _____ a separate locker.

• A. have
• B. has (Correct)
• C. were given
• D. are given

Explanation: 'Each' is singular and takes a singular verb.

96. He is _____ honest officer.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Honest begins with a vowel sound.

97. She has been absent _____ Monday.

• A. from
• B. since (Correct)
• C. for
• D. by

Explanation: 'Since' is used with a point of time.

98. Choose the passive form: They will announce the result tomorrow.

• A. The result will announce tomorrow.
• B. The result will be announced tomorrow. (Correct)
• C. The result is announced tomorrow.
• D. The result was announced tomorrow.

Explanation: Future passive uses will be plus past participle.

99. He said, 'I have finished my task.' The indirect form is:

• A. He said that he had finished his task. (Correct)
• B. He said that I had finished my task.
• C. He says that he has finished his task.
• D. He said that he finished my task.

Explanation: Present perfect changes to past perfect in reported speech after a past reporting verb.

100. Identify the error: One of the boys have solved the puzzle.

• A. One of
• B. the boys
• C. have solved (Correct)
• D. the puzzle

Explanation: 'One' is singular, so 'has solved' is correct.