SSC CHSL Tier 1 Full Mock Test 3

1. At 2:30, the angle between the hands is:

• A. 95°
• B. 100°
• C. 105° (Correct)
• D. 110°

Explanation: Hour hand is at 75° and minute hand at 180°. Difference = 105°.

2. Which year is a leap year?

• A. 1900
• B. 2018
• C. 2020 (Correct)
• D. 2100

Explanation: 2020 is divisible by 4 and not a century exception.

3. If today is Wednesday, what day will it be after 45 days?

• A. Friday
• B. Saturday (Correct)
• C. Sunday
• D. Monday

Explanation: 45 leaves remainder 3 when divided by 7. Wednesday + 3 days = Saturday.

4. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in 12 hours?

• A. 10
• B. 11 (Correct)
• C. 12
• D. 13

Explanation: The hands coincide 11 times in every 12-hour period.

5. If 5 March is Friday, what day will 12 March be?

• A. Friday (Correct)
• B. Saturday
• C. Thursday
• D. Sunday

Explanation: 12 March is exactly 7 days later, so the day remains Friday.

6. At 9:00, the angle between the clock hands is:

• A. 60 deg
• B. 90 deg (Correct)
• C. 120 deg
• D. 180 deg

Explanation: At 9:00, the hands are three hour marks apart, so the angle is 90 degrees.

7. How many odd days are there in 400 years?

• A. 0 (Correct)
• B. 1
• C. 2
• D. 5

Explanation: A 400-year Gregorian cycle has 0 odd days.

8. At 4:20, the smaller angle between the clock hands is:

• A. 5 deg
• B. 10 deg (Correct)
• C. 15 deg
• D. 20 deg

Explanation: Hour hand angle = 130 degrees and minute hand angle = 120 degrees, so the difference is 10 degrees.

9. If 1 April is Tuesday, what day will 15 April be?

• A. Monday
• B. Tuesday (Correct)
• C. Wednesday
• D. Thursday

Explanation: 15 April is 14 days later, exactly two weeks, so the weekday remains Tuesday.

10. The minute hand covers how many degrees in 15 minutes?

• A. 45 deg
• B. 60 deg
• C. 90 deg (Correct)
• D. 120 deg

Explanation: The minute hand moves 6 degrees per minute. In 15 minutes, it moves 90 degrees.

11. Which Venn relation best represents Doctors, Engineers and Professionals?

• A. Doctors and Engineers inside Professionals (Correct)
• B. All separate
• C. Professionals inside Doctors
• D. Doctors inside Engineers

Explanation: Doctors and engineers are different groups, but both are professionals.

12. Which relation represents Mango, Fruit and Vegetable?

• A. Mango inside Fruit, Vegetable separate (Correct)
• B. Fruit inside Mango
• C. All same
• D. Mango inside Vegetable

Explanation: Mango is a fruit and not a vegetable.

13. Which relation represents Women, Mothers and Teachers?

• A. Mothers inside Women; Teachers may overlap Women (Correct)
• B. All separate
• C. Teachers inside Mothers
• D. Women inside Mothers

Explanation: All mothers are women, while teachers can be men or women.

14. Students, Boys and Girls are represented as:

• A. Boys and Girls as separate parts inside Students (Correct)
• B. Students inside Boys
• C. All separate
• D. Boys inside Girls

Explanation: Boys and girls are two groups within students.

15. Which relation represents Square, Rectangle and Triangle?

• A. Square inside Rectangle; Triangle separate (Correct)
• B. Rectangle inside Square
• C. All same
• D. Triangle inside Rectangle

Explanation: Every square is a rectangle, while a triangle is a separate figure.

16. Which relation represents India, Delhi and Asia?

• A. Delhi inside India inside Asia (Correct)
• B. India inside Delhi
• C. Asia inside India
• D. All separate

Explanation: Delhi is in India, and India is in Asia.

17. Which relation represents Books, Novels and Tables?

• A. Novels inside Books; Tables separate (Correct)
• B. Books inside Novels
• C. Tables inside Books
• D. All same

Explanation: Novels are books; tables are furniture.

18. In a group, 40 like tea, 30 like coffee and 10 like both. How many like at least one of the two?

• A. 50
• B. 60 (Correct)
• C. 70
• D. 80

Explanation: At least one = 40 + 30 - 10 = 60.

19. Which relation represents Birds, Sparrows and Crows?

• A. Sparrows and Crows inside Birds (Correct)
• B. Birds inside Sparrows
• C. All separate
• D. Sparrows inside Crows

Explanation: Sparrows and crows are different types of birds.

20. In a class, 25 play cricket, 18 play football and 7 play both. How many play exactly one game?

• A. 29 (Correct)
• B. 31
• C. 33
• D. 36

Explanation: Exactly one = (25 - 7) + (18 - 7) = 29.

21. Which relation best represents Gold, Metal and Wood?

• A. Gold inside Metal; Wood separate (Correct)
• B. Metal inside Gold
• C. Wood inside Metal
• D. All same

Explanation: Gold is a metal, while wood is separate.

22. Which relation represents Teachers, Female Teachers and Males?

• A. Female Teachers inside Teachers; Males may overlap Teachers (Correct)
• B. All separate
• C. Teachers inside Female Teachers
• D. Males inside Female Teachers

Explanation: All female teachers are teachers; male persons can also be teachers.

23. In a survey, 32 read Hindi, 28 read English and 12 read both. How many read exactly one language?

• A. 32
• B. 36 (Correct)
• C. 40
• D. 48

Explanation: Exactly one = (32 - 12) + (28 - 12) = 36.

24. Which relation represents Animals, Dogs and Cats?

• A. Dogs and Cats inside Animals (Correct)
• B. Animals inside Dogs
• C. Cats inside Dogs
• D. All separate

Explanation: Dogs and cats are different groups inside animals.

25. In a class, 20 like maths, 22 like science and 8 like both. If 6 like neither, total students are:

• A. 34
• B. 38
• C. 40 (Correct)
• D. 42

Explanation: At least one = 20 + 22 - 8 = 34. Including 6 neither gives total = 40.

26. Who started the Ramakrishna Mission?

• A. Swami Vivekananda (Correct)
• B. Dayanand Saraswati
• C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
• D. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Explanation: Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission.

27. Odissi dance belongs to:

• A. Odisha (Correct)
• B. Kerala
• C. Tamil Nadu
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: Odissi is the classical dance of Odisha.

28. 'India Wins Freedom' was written by:

• A. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (Correct)
• B. Nehru
• C. Gandhi
• D. Rajaji

Explanation: The book was written by Maulana Azad.

29. The Red Fort is located in:

• A. Agra
• B. Delhi (Correct)
• C. Jaipur
• D. Lucknow

Explanation: The Red Fort is in Delhi.

30. Who founded the Gupta Empire?

• A. Chandragupta I (Correct)
• B. Samudragupta
• C. Harsha
• D. Ashoka

Explanation: Chandragupta I is regarded as the founder of the Gupta Empire.

31. Garba is mainly associated with:

• A. Punjab
• B. Gujarat (Correct)
• C. Odisha
• D. Bihar

Explanation: Garba is the famous folk dance of Gujarat.

32. The Quit India Movement was launched in:

• A. 1940
• B. 1942 (Correct)
• C. 1945
• D. 1947

Explanation: It was launched in August 1942.

33. 'Geetanjali' is written by:

• A. Tagore (Correct)
• B. Premchand
• C. Nehru
• D. Bharati

Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore wrote Gitanjali.

34. The Taj Mahal is situated in:

• A. Jaipur
• B. Agra (Correct)
• C. Delhi
• D. Hyderabad

Explanation: The Taj Mahal is in Agra.

35. The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the:

• A. Dandi March (Correct)
• B. Non-Cooperation Movement
• C. Khilafat Movement
• D. Bardoli Satyagraha

Explanation: The movement began with Gandhi's Dandi March.

36. Article 32 is related to:

• A. Right to Equality
• B. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Correct)
• C. Right to Freedom of Religion
• D. Directive Principles

Explanation: Article 32 gives the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of rights.

37. RBI stands for:

• A. Reserve Bank of India (Correct)
• B. Revenue Bank of India
• C. Rural Bank of India
• D. Registered Bank of India

Explanation: RBI is India's central bank.

38. GST stands for:

• A. General Sales Tax
• B. Goods and Services Tax (Correct)
• C. Gross State Tax
• D. Government Service Tariff

Explanation: GST is the Goods and Services Tax system in India.

39. The Governor is the constitutional head of a:

• A. district
• B. state (Correct)
• C. municipality
• D. union territory always

Explanation: A Governor is the constitutional head of a state.

40. NITI Aayog replaced the:

• A. Finance Commission
• B. Planning Commission (Correct)
• C. Election Commission
• D. UPSC

Explanation: NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission.

41. The tenure of Lok Sabha is normally:

• A. 4 years
• B. 5 years (Correct)
• C. 6 years
• D. 7 years

Explanation: The normal tenure of Lok Sabha is five years.

42. Inflation refers to a sustained rise in the:

• A. general price level (Correct)
• B. tax rate only
• C. exports only
• D. population level

Explanation: Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level.

43. The Right to Equality is contained in Articles:

• A. 12 to 35
• B. 14 to 18 (Correct)
• C. 19 to 22
• D. 23 to 24

Explanation: Articles 14 to 18 cover the Right to Equality.

44. Which institution issues currency notes in India except one-rupee note?

• A. Finance Ministry
• B. RBI (Correct)
• C. SEBI
• D. NABARD

Explanation: RBI issues currency notes except the one-rupee note.

45. The constitutional amendment related to Panchayati Raj is:

• A. 42nd
• B. 44th
• C. 73rd (Correct)
• D. 74th

Explanation: The 73rd Amendment constitutionalised Panchayati Raj institutions.

46. The basic unit of Indian currency is:

• A. rupee (Correct)
• B. paisa
• C. anna
• D. token

Explanation: The rupee is the basic currency unit.

47. A budget deficit means:

• A. income exceeds expenditure
• B. expenditure exceeds income (Correct)
• C. taxes vanish
• D. all prices fall

Explanation: A deficit arises when spending is greater than receipts.

48. The upper house of Parliament is called:

• A. Lok Sabha
• B. Rajya Sabha (Correct)
• C. Vidhan Sabha
• D. Gram Sabha

Explanation: Rajya Sabha is the upper house of Parliament.

49. Untouchability is abolished under Article:

• A. 14
• B. 17 (Correct)
• C. 19
• D. 21

Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability.

50. The full form of GDP is:

• A. Gross Domestic Product (Correct)
• B. General Development Plan
• C. Gross Demand Product
• D. Government Debt Plan

Explanation: GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product.

51. If a person saves 25% of income, expenditure percent is:

• A. 65%
• B. 70%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 80%

Explanation: Expenditure = 100% - 25% = 75%.

52. A number is increased by 10% and then by 20%. Net increase is:

• A. 28%
• B. 30%
• C. 32% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: 1.1 x 1.2 = 1.32, so net increase = 32%.

53. If A is 20% less than B, then B is what percent more than A?

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 35%

Explanation: If B = 100 and A = 80, then B is 20 more than 80, i.e. 25%.

54. 12% of 250 is:

• A. 25
• B. 28
• C. 30 (Correct)
• D. 32

Explanation: 12% of 250 = 30.

55. Income is 8000 and expenditure is 6000. Savings percent on income is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 35%

Explanation: Savings = 2000, so 2000/8000 x 100 = 25%.

56. A number after decreasing by 20% becomes 160. Original number was:

• A. 180
• B. 190
• C. 200 (Correct)
• D. 220

Explanation: Original x 0.8 = 160, so original = 200.

57. Milk in a mixture is 40%. In 250 litres, milk is:

• A. 80
• B. 90
• C. 100 (Correct)
• D. 110

Explanation: 40% of 250 = 100 litres.

58. Salary rises from 15000 to 18000. Increase percent is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Increase = 3000 on base 15000, so 20%.

59. A number decreases from 250 to 200. Percentage decrease is:

• A. 15%
• B. 18%
• C. 20% (Correct)
• D. 25%

Explanation: Decrease = 50 on base 250, so 20%.

60. Passing marks are 40% of 500. A student scores 176. He fails by:

• A. 12
• B. 16
• C. 20
• D. 24 (Correct)

Explanation: Passing marks = 200, so shortfall = 24.

61. 18% of 250 is:

• A. 35
• B. 40
• C. 45 (Correct)
• D. 50

Explanation: 18/100 x 250 = 45.

62. A value increases from 80 to 100. The increase percent is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 40%

Explanation: Increase is 20 on base 80, so 20/80 x 100 = 25%.

63. A number drops from 500 to 425. Decrease percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 12%
• C. 15% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Decrease is 75 on base 500, so 15%.

64. A student gets 168 marks out of 240. Percentage is:

• A. 65%
• B. 68%
• C. 70% (Correct)
• D. 72%

Explanation: 168/240 x 100 = 70%.

65. If a person spends 72% of income, savings percent is:

• A. 18%
• B. 22%
• C. 24%
• D. 28% (Correct)

Explanation: Savings percent = 100% - 72% = 28%.

66. Population of a town rises by 12% from 25000. New population is:

• A. 27600
• B. 27800
• C. 28000 (Correct)
• D. 28500

Explanation: Increase = 12% of 25000 = 3000, so new population = 28000.

67. After a 20% rise, a salary becomes Rs. 36000. Original salary was:

• A. 28000
• B. 30000 (Correct)
• C. 32000
• D. 34000

Explanation: Original x 1.2 = 36000, so original = 30000.

68. A number is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. Net effect is:

• A. No change (Correct)
• B. 5% increase
• C. 5% decrease
• D. 10% increase

Explanation: 1.25 x 0.8 = 1, so there is no net change.

69. Passing marks are 35% of 400. A student scores 152. He passes by:

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 12 (Correct)
• D. 14

Explanation: Passing marks are 140, so the student passes by 12 marks.

70. An article bought for Rs. 800 is sold for Rs. 920. Profit percent is:

• A. 12%
• B. 15% (Correct)
• C. 18%
• D. 20%

Explanation: Profit = 120 on cost price 800, so 15%.

71. Marked price is Rs. 1500 and selling price is Rs. 1275. Discount percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 12%
• C. 15% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Discount = 225, so 225/1500 x 100 = 15%.

72. 45% of 200 is:

• A. 80
• B. 85
• C. 90 (Correct)
• D. 95

Explanation: 45/100 x 200 = 90.

73. In a class of 80 students, 60% are girls. Number of boys is:

• A. 24
• B. 28
• C. 30
• D. 32 (Correct)

Explanation: Girls = 48, so boys = 32.

74. A quantity becomes 96 after falling by 20%. Its original value was:

• A. 110
• B. 115
• C. 120 (Correct)
• D. 125

Explanation: Original x 0.8 = 96, so original = 120.

75. 35% of 200 is:

• A. 60
• B. 65
• C. 70 (Correct)
• D. 75

Explanation: 35/100 x 200 = 70.

76. If I had seen her, I _____ to her.

• A. speak
• B. would speak
• C. would have spoken (Correct)
• D. spoke

Explanation: Third conditional uses 'would have' plus past participle.

77. Choose the best replacement: He is senior than me.

• A. senior to me (Correct)
• B. senior from me
• C. more senior than me
• D. no improvement

Explanation: 'Senior' is followed by 'to', not 'than'.

78. Neither Rani nor Meena brought _____ notebook.

• A. her (Correct)
• B. their
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: In traditional exam grammar, singular nouns joined by 'nor' take a singular pronoun.

79. He worked hard _____ he could succeed.

• A. so that (Correct)
• B. unless
• C. although
• D. because of

Explanation: 'So that' expresses purpose.

80. Swimming is good for health. The underlined word functions as a:

• A. noun (Correct)
• B. adjective
• C. adverb
• D. preposition

Explanation: A gerund acts as a noun.

81. This is the _____ building in the area.

• A. taller
• B. tall
• C. tallest (Correct)
• D. more tall

Explanation: The superlative is needed for comparison among many.

82. I would rather _____ at home tonight.

• A. stay (Correct)
• B. stayed
• C. staying
• D. to stay

Explanation: 'Would rather' is followed by the base form.

83. She _____ to Delhi last week.

• A. go
• B. goes
• C. went (Correct)
• D. gone

Explanation: Past time marker requires simple past.

84. Neither of the boys _____ ready.

• A. are
• B. were
• C. is (Correct)
• D. have

Explanation: 'Neither' takes a singular verb.

85. He bought _____ umbrella yesterday.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Umbrella begins with a vowel sound.

86. Choose the passive form: They are repairing the road.

• A. The road is repaired.
• B. The road is being repaired. (Correct)
• C. The road was being repaired.
• D. The road has repaired.

Explanation: Present continuous passive uses is being + past participle.

87. Identify the error: The news are surprising.

• A. The
• B. news
• C. are surprising (Correct)
• D. no error

Explanation: 'News' is singular, so 'is surprising' is correct.

88. If it rains, we _____ indoors.

• A. stay
• B. stayed
• C. will stay (Correct)
• D. would stay

Explanation: First conditional uses future in the main clause.

89. Choose the best replacement: He is good in maths.

• A. good at maths (Correct)
• B. good on maths
• C. good for maths
• D. no improvement

Explanation: 'Good at' is the correct phrase.

90. Everyone should do _____ duty.

• A. their
• B. his (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Traditional exam grammar prefers singular 'his' here.

91. Work hard, _____ you will fail.

• A. and
• B. or (Correct)
• C. but
• D. so

Explanation: 'Or' expresses warning in this pattern.

92. He enjoys _____ books.

• A. read
• B. reading (Correct)
• C. to read
• D. reads

Explanation: 'Enjoy' is followed by a gerund.

93. This road is _____ than that one.

• A. wide
• B. wider (Correct)
• C. widest
• D. more widest

Explanation: Comparative adjective is needed.

94. Had I known, I _____ helped you.

• A. will
• B. would have (Correct)
• C. shall
• D. am

Explanation: Third conditional takes 'would have'.

95. She is absent today, _____?

• A. is she
• B. isn't she (Correct)
• C. doesn't she
• D. wasn't she

Explanation: Positive statement takes negative tag.

96. Choose the correct article: It was _____ unique opportunity.

• A. a (Correct)
• B. an
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Unique begins with a consonant sound, so 'a' is correct.

97. She is interested _____ classical music.

• A. at
• B. in (Correct)
• C. on
• D. for

Explanation: The correct phrase is 'interested in'.

98. Neither the manager nor the workers _____ ready.

• A. is
• B. was
• C. are (Correct)
• D. has

Explanation: The verb agrees with the nearer subject, 'workers'.

99. By this time tomorrow, they _____ the journey.

• A. finish
• B. finished
• C. will finish
• D. will have finished (Correct)

Explanation: Future perfect is used for completion before a future point.

100. Choose the passive form: The police arrested the thief.

• A. The thief arrested by the police.
• B. The thief was arrested by the police. (Correct)
• C. The police was arrested by the thief.
• D. The thief is arrested by the police.

Explanation: Simple past passive uses was/were plus past participle.