SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 4

1. 18% of 250 is:

• A. 35
• B. 40
• C. 45 (Correct)
• D. 50

Explanation: 18/100 x 250 = 45.

2. A value increases from 80 to 100. The increase percent is:

• A. 20%
• B. 25% (Correct)
• C. 30%
• D. 40%

Explanation: Increase is 20 on base 80, so 20/80 x 100 = 25%.

3. A number drops from 500 to 425. Decrease percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 12%
• C. 15% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Decrease is 75 on base 500, so 15%.

4. A student gets 168 marks out of 240. Percentage is:

• A. 65%
• B. 68%
• C. 70% (Correct)
• D. 72%

Explanation: 168/240 x 100 = 70%.

5. If a person spends 72% of income, savings percent is:

• A. 18%
• B. 22%
• C. 24%
• D. 28% (Correct)

Explanation: Savings percent = 100% - 72% = 28%.

6. Population of a town rises by 12% from 25000. New population is:

• A. 27600
• B. 27800
• C. 28000 (Correct)
• D. 28500

Explanation: Increase = 12% of 25000 = 3000, so new population = 28000.

7. After a 20% rise, a salary becomes Rs. 36000. Original salary was:

• A. 28000
• B. 30000 (Correct)
• C. 32000
• D. 34000

Explanation: Original x 1.2 = 36000, so original = 30000.

8. A number is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. Net effect is:

• A. No change (Correct)
• B. 5% increase
• C. 5% decrease
• D. 10% increase

Explanation: 1.25 x 0.8 = 1, so there is no net change.

9. Passing marks are 35% of 400. A student scores 152. He passes by:

• A. 8
• B. 10
• C. 12 (Correct)
• D. 14

Explanation: Passing marks are 140, so the student passes by 12 marks.

10. An article bought for Rs. 800 is sold for Rs. 920. Profit percent is:

• A. 12%
• B. 15% (Correct)
• C. 18%
• D. 20%

Explanation: Profit = 120 on cost price 800, so 15%.

11. Marked price is Rs. 1500 and selling price is Rs. 1275. Discount percent is:

• A. 10%
• B. 12%
• C. 15% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Discount = 225, so 225/1500 x 100 = 15%.

12. 45% of 200 is:

• A. 80
• B. 85
• C. 90 (Correct)
• D. 95

Explanation: 45/100 x 200 = 90.

13. In a class of 80 students, 60% are girls. Number of boys is:

• A. 24
• B. 28
• C. 30
• D. 32 (Correct)

Explanation: Girls = 48, so boys = 32.

14. A quantity becomes 96 after falling by 20%. Its original value was:

• A. 110
• B. 115
• C. 120 (Correct)
• D. 125

Explanation: Original x 0.8 = 96, so original = 120.

15. 35% of 200 is:

• A. 60
• B. 65
• C. 70 (Correct)
• D. 75

Explanation: 35/100 x 200 = 70.

16. A value increases from 400 to 440. Increase percent is:

• A. 5%
• B. 8%
• C. 10% (Correct)
• D. 12%

Explanation: Increase is 40 on base 400.

17. A price falls from 500 to 450. Decrease percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease is 50 on base 500.

18. A student gets 315 out of 420. Percentage marks are:

• A. 70%
• B. 75% (Correct)
• C. 80%
• D. 85%

Explanation: 315/420 x 100 = 75%.

19. Population rises from 8000 to 8800. Increase percent is:

• A. 8%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Increase is 800 on 8000.

20. If income is 3000 and expenditure is 2400, expenditure percent of income is:

• A. 70%
• B. 75%
• C. 80% (Correct)
• D. 85%

Explanation: 2400/3000 x 100 = 80%.

21. Which Venn relation best represents Doctors, Engineers and Professionals?

• A. Doctors and Engineers inside Professionals (Correct)
• B. All separate
• C. Professionals inside Doctors
• D. Doctors inside Engineers

Explanation: Doctors and engineers are different groups, but both are professionals.

22. Which relation represents Mango, Fruit and Vegetable?

• A. Mango inside Fruit, Vegetable separate (Correct)
• B. Fruit inside Mango
• C. All same
• D. Mango inside Vegetable

Explanation: Mango is a fruit and not a vegetable.

23. Which relation represents Women, Mothers and Teachers?

• A. Mothers inside Women; Teachers may overlap Women (Correct)
• B. All separate
• C. Teachers inside Mothers
• D. Women inside Mothers

Explanation: All mothers are women, while teachers can be men or women.

24. Students, Boys and Girls are represented as:

• A. Boys and Girls as separate parts inside Students (Correct)
• B. Students inside Boys
• C. All separate
• D. Boys inside Girls

Explanation: Boys and girls are two groups within students.

25. Which relation represents Square, Rectangle and Triangle?

• A. Square inside Rectangle; Triangle separate (Correct)
• B. Rectangle inside Square
• C. All same
• D. Triangle inside Rectangle

Explanation: Every square is a rectangle, while a triangle is a separate figure.

26. Which relation represents India, Delhi and Asia?

• A. Delhi inside India inside Asia (Correct)
• B. India inside Delhi
• C. Asia inside India
• D. All separate

Explanation: Delhi is in India, and India is in Asia.

27. Which relation represents Books, Novels and Tables?

• A. Novels inside Books; Tables separate (Correct)
• B. Books inside Novels
• C. Tables inside Books
• D. All same

Explanation: Novels are books; tables are furniture.

28. In a group, 40 like tea, 30 like coffee and 10 like both. How many like at least one of the two?

• A. 50
• B. 60 (Correct)
• C. 70
• D. 80

Explanation: At least one = 40 + 30 - 10 = 60.

29. Which relation represents Birds, Sparrows and Crows?

• A. Sparrows and Crows inside Birds (Correct)
• B. Birds inside Sparrows
• C. All separate
• D. Sparrows inside Crows

Explanation: Sparrows and crows are different types of birds.

30. In a class, 25 play cricket, 18 play football and 7 play both. How many play exactly one game?

• A. 29 (Correct)
• B. 31
• C. 33
• D. 36

Explanation: Exactly one = (25 - 7) + (18 - 7) = 29.

31. Which relation best represents Gold, Metal and Wood?

• A. Gold inside Metal; Wood separate (Correct)
• B. Metal inside Gold
• C. Wood inside Metal
• D. All same

Explanation: Gold is a metal, while wood is separate.

32. Which relation represents Teachers, Female Teachers and Males?

• A. Female Teachers inside Teachers; Males may overlap Teachers (Correct)
• B. All separate
• C. Teachers inside Female Teachers
• D. Males inside Female Teachers

Explanation: All female teachers are teachers; male persons can also be teachers.

33. In a survey, 32 read Hindi, 28 read English and 12 read both. How many read exactly one language?

• A. 32
• B. 36 (Correct)
• C. 40
• D. 48

Explanation: Exactly one = (32 - 12) + (28 - 12) = 36.

34. Which relation represents Animals, Dogs and Cats?

• A. Dogs and Cats inside Animals (Correct)
• B. Animals inside Dogs
• C. Cats inside Dogs
• D. All separate

Explanation: Dogs and cats are different groups inside animals.

35. In a class, 20 like maths, 22 like science and 8 like both. If 6 like neither, total students are:

• A. 34
• B. 38
• C. 40 (Correct)
• D. 42

Explanation: At least one = 20 + 22 - 8 = 34. Including 6 neither gives total = 40.

36. In a standard dice, which number is opposite to 1?

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 5
• D. 6 (Correct)

Explanation: In a standard dice, opposite faces add to 7.

37. In a standard dice, which number is opposite to 3?

• A. 1
• B. 2
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 6

Explanation: Opposite faces add to 7, so 3 is opposite 4.

38. A cube has 6 faces, 12 edges and how many vertices?

• A. 6
• B. 8 (Correct)
• C. 10
• D. 12

Explanation: A cube has 8 vertices.

39. A cube is painted on all faces and cut into 27 equal small cubes. How many small cubes have three painted faces?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 12

Explanation: Only corner cubes have three painted faces, and a cube has 8 corners.

40. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 64 equal cubes. How many small cubes have no painted face?

• A. 4
• B. 6
• C. 8 (Correct)
• D. 12

Explanation: For 4 x 4 x 4 cutting, inner unpainted cubes = (4-2)^3 = 8.

41. Identify the error: The list of items are on the table.

• A. The list
• B. of items
• C. are (Correct)
• D. on the table

Explanation: 'List' is singular, so 'is' is correct.

42. He stayed at home _____ he was unwell.

• A. because (Correct)
• B. unless
• C. although
• D. till

Explanation: 'Because' correctly gives the reason.

43. You _____ wear a helmet while riding.

• A. should (Correct)
• B. might
• C. used to
• D. can be

Explanation: 'Should' expresses advice or obligation.

44. He can solve it, _____?

• A. can't he (Correct)
• B. can he
• C. doesn't he
• D. isn't he

Explanation: The positive statement takes a negative tag.

45. If I had more time, I _____ another chapter.

• A. read
• B. would read (Correct)
• C. will read
• D. would have read

Explanation: This is a second conditional structure.

46. She avoided _____ late.

• A. to arrive
• B. arrive
• C. arriving (Correct)
• D. arrived

Explanation: 'Avoid' is followed by a gerund.

47. Each candidate must bring _____ admit card.

• A. their
• B. his or her (Correct)
• C. our
• D. its

Explanation: Formal singular agreement with 'each' takes 'his or her'.

48. He answered the question _____.

• A. correct
• B. correctly (Correct)
• C. more correct
• D. correction

Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify the verb.

49. Choose the correct article: It was _____ unusual experience.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Unusual begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is correct.

50. Neither the principal nor the teachers _____ present.

• A. is
• B. was
• C. are (Correct)
• D. has

Explanation: With 'neither...nor', the verb agrees with the nearer subject 'teachers'.

51. Choose the passive form: They have completed the form.

• A. The form has completed.
• B. The form has been completed. (Correct)
• C. The form was completed.
• D. The form is completed.

Explanation: Present perfect passive uses has/have been plus past participle.

52. He has been waiting here _____ 9 o'clock.

• A. for
• B. since (Correct)
• C. from
• D. by

Explanation: 'Since' is used with a point of time.

53. If I were rich, I _____ a library.

• A. build
• B. built
• C. would build (Correct)
• D. will build

Explanation: Second conditional uses 'would' with the base verb.

54. Identify the incorrect part: The list of selected candidates / have been uploaded / on the official website / no error.

• A. The list of selected candidates
• B. have been uploaded (Correct)
• C. on the official website
• D. no error

Explanation: The main subject is singular: 'list'. The correct verb is 'has been uploaded'.

55. Choose the best replacement: The officer asked me where did I live.

• A. where I lived (Correct)
• B. where do I live
• C. where I live?
• D. no improvement

Explanation: In indirect questions, the word order is subject + verb, and the tense shifts with the past reporting verb.

56. Choose the best word: The report was rejected because it was not _____ with the prescribed format.

• A. complied
• B. consistent (Correct)
• C. insisting
• D. dependent

Explanation: 'Consistent with' means in agreement with a standard or format.

57. Choose the active form: The files must be verified before noon.

• A. Someone must verify the files before noon. (Correct)
• B. The files must verify someone before noon.
• C. Someone verified the files before noon.
• D. The files are verifying before noon.

Explanation: Modal passive 'must be verified' changes to active 'must verify'.

58. Choose the indirect form: He said, 'Let us review the answer key again.'

• A. He suggested that they should review the answer key again. (Correct)
• B. He said that they review the answer key again.
• C. He requested that they reviewed the answer key again.
• D. He ordered they review the answer key again.

Explanation: 'Let us' used as a proposal is commonly reported with 'suggested that ... should'.

59. Choose the correct article: He waited for _____ hour before the gate opened.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Hour begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is correct.

60. The bouquet of roses _____ on the table.

• A. are
• B. were
• C. is (Correct)
• D. have

Explanation: The main subject is 'bouquet', which is singular.

61. By the time we reached, the guests _____ dinner.

• A. finish
• B. finished
• C. had finished (Correct)
• D. have finished

Explanation: Past perfect is used for the earlier of two past actions.

62. Choose the passive form: The team has completed the survey.

• A. The survey has completed.
• B. The survey has been completed. (Correct)
• C. The survey had completed.
• D. The survey is being completed.

Explanation: Present perfect passive uses has/have been plus past participle.

63. Identify the error: Neither the players nor the coach have arrived.

• A. Neither
• B. the players
• C. have arrived (Correct)
• D. no error

Explanation: The verb agrees with the nearer subject 'coach', so 'has arrived' is correct.

64. He missed the bus _____ he woke up late.

• A. because (Correct)
• B. although
• C. unless
• D. whereas

Explanation: 'Because' correctly shows reason.

65. Choose the best replacement: She is married with a doctor.

• A. married to a doctor (Correct)
• B. married by a doctor
• C. married for a doctor
• D. no improvement

Explanation: The correct phrase is 'married to'.

66. The Chief Election Commissioner belongs to which body?

• A. UPSC
• B. Election Commission of India (Correct)
• C. Finance Commission
• D. NITI Aayog

Explanation: The CEC heads the Election Commission of India.

67. SEBI regulates the:

• A. bank branches
• B. stock market (Correct)
• C. railways
• D. agriculture census

Explanation: SEBI regulates India's securities market.

68. The Vice-President of India is the ex-officio Chairman of:

• A. Lok Sabha
• B. Rajya Sabha (Correct)
• C. Supreme Court
• D. NITI Aayog

Explanation: The Vice-President serves as Chairman of Rajya Sabha.

69. The tax collected on goods and services is commonly known as:

• A. GST (Correct)
• B. FDI
• C. GDP
• D. MSP

Explanation: GST is the Goods and Services Tax.

70. The Directive Principles of State Policy are contained in:

• A. Part III
• B. Part IV (Correct)
• C. Part V
• D. Part VI

Explanation: Directive Principles are in Part IV of the Constitution.

71. Repo rate is associated with:

• A. Reserve Bank of India (Correct)
• B. Election Commission
• C. CAG
• D. Planning Commission

Explanation: Repo rate is a monetary policy rate set by RBI.

72. India is described in the Constitution as a:

• A. Unitary state only
• B. Union of States (Correct)
• C. Federation by treaty
• D. Kingdom

Explanation: Article 1 describes India as a Union of States.

73. Deflation refers to:

• A. rise in prices
• B. fall in general price level (Correct)
• C. rise in tax only
• D. shortage of money only

Explanation: Deflation is the opposite of inflation.

74. The Supreme Court of India is located in:

• A. Mumbai
• B. New Delhi (Correct)
• C. Chennai
• D. Kolkata

Explanation: The Supreme Court is in New Delhi.

75. FDI stands for:

• A. Foreign Direct Investment (Correct)
• B. Federal Domestic Income
• C. Free Duty Import
• D. Financial Development Index

Explanation: FDI means Foreign Direct Investment.

76. The term of the President of India is:

• A. 4 years
• B. 5 years (Correct)
• C. 6 years
• D. 7 years

Explanation: The President's term is five years.

77. A subsidy generally means:

• A. government financial support (Correct)
• B. bank penalty
• C. new tax
• D. private donation only

Explanation: A subsidy is financial assistance provided by the government.

78. The head of the Union Council of Ministers is the:

• A. President
• B. Prime Minister (Correct)
• C. Chief Justice
• D. Governor

Explanation: The Prime Minister heads the Council of Ministers.

79. Fundamental Duties were added by the:

• A. 42nd Amendment (Correct)
• B. 44th Amendment
• C. 73rd Amendment
• D. 86th Amendment

Explanation: Fundamental Duties were added by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment.

80. MSP stands for:

• A. Minimum Support Price (Correct)
• B. Maximum Sale Price
• C. Market Security Policy
• D. Multi State Plan

Explanation: MSP means Minimum Support Price.

81. The longest river in India is generally taken as:

• A. Godavari
• B. Ganga (Correct)
• C. Yamuna
• D. Narmada

Explanation: In standard Indian GK usage, Ganga is treated as the longest river in India.

82. The desert located in western India is:

• A. Sahara
• B. Thar (Correct)
• C. Gobi
• D. Kalahari

Explanation: The Thar Desert lies in western India.

83. The powerhouse of the cell is:

• A. nucleus
• B. mitochondria (Correct)
• C. ribosome
• D. lysosome

Explanation: Mitochondria are called the powerhouse of the cell.

84. The chemical symbol of gold is:

• A. Ag
• B. Au (Correct)
• C. Gd
• D. Go

Explanation: Gold has the symbol Au.

85. Plants prepare food by:

• A. respiration
• B. digestion
• C. photosynthesis (Correct)
• D. excretion

Explanation: Plants make food by photosynthesis.

86. Vitamin C deficiency causes:

• A. rickets
• B. scurvy (Correct)
• C. night blindness
• D. goitre

Explanation: Scurvy is caused by deficiency of Vitamin C.

87. The speed of light is greatest in:

• A. water
• B. glass
• C. vacuum (Correct)
• D. air only

Explanation: Light travels fastest in vacuum.

88. The largest ocean on Earth is:

• A. Atlantic
• B. Indian
• C. Pacific (Correct)
• D. Arctic

Explanation: The Pacific Ocean is the largest.

89. The gas used in fire extinguishers is often:

• A. oxygen
• B. carbon dioxide (Correct)
• C. hydrogen
• D. helium

Explanation: Carbon dioxide is commonly used in many fire extinguishers.

90. The human heart has _____ chambers.

• A. 2
• B. 3
• C. 4 (Correct)
• D. 5

Explanation: The heart has four chambers.