Competitive Practice

SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 5

Attempt a separate 90-question validated paper with two locked 45-minute sessions, current scoring and explanation review.

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SSC MTS 2026

SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 5

A validated 90-question MTS simulation. Session I has Numerical Ability and Reasoning with no negative marking; Session II has General Awareness and English with a one-mark penalty for each wrong answer.

Questions
90
Duration
45 min / section
Marking
+3; no penalty in I, -1 in II (Max 270)
Sections
Session I: 40 | Session II: 50

Question Palette Legend

1Not Visited1Not Answered1Answered1Marked for Review1Answered + Marked
Preview all 90 questions in SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 5 (no login required)
  1. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Successive Change

    1. A number increases by 10% and then by 20%. Net increase is:

    • A. 28%
    • B. 30%
    • C. 32% (Correct)
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: Net factor = 1.1 x 1.2 = 1.32.

  2. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Fraction to Percent

    2. 7/20 as a percent is:

    • A. 30%
    • B. 35% (Correct)
    • C. 40%
    • D. 45%

    Explanation: 7/20 x 100 = 35%.

  3. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Profit Percentage

    3. CP = 600 and SP = 720. Profit percent is:

    • A. 15%
    • B. 18%
    • C. 20% (Correct)
    • D. 22%

    Explanation: Profit = 120, so 120/600 x 100 = 20%.

  4. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Percentage & Discount

    4. Marked price 2000 with 10% discount gives selling price:

    • A. 1700
    • B. 1750
    • C. 1800 (Correct)
    • D. 1850

    Explanation: 10% of 2000 is 200.

  5. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Ratio Percentage

    5. If boys:girls = 4:1 in a class, percentage of girls is:

    • A. 10%
    • B. 15%
    • C. 20% (Correct)
    • D. 25%

    Explanation: Girls are 1 out of total 5 parts.

  6. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Reverse Percentage

    6. After a 20% increase, a number becomes 360. Original number was:

    • A. 280
    • B. 300 (Correct)
    • C. 320
    • D. 340

    Explanation: Original x 1.2 = 360.

  7. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Pass Percentage

    7. If 144 students out of 180 pass, pass percentage is:

    • A. 70%
    • B. 75%
    • C. 80% (Correct)
    • D. 85%

    Explanation: 144/180 x 100 = 80%.

  8. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Comparison

    8. A is 25% more than B. B is what percent less than A?

    • A. 15%
    • B. 20% (Correct)
    • C. 25%
    • D. 30%

    Explanation: If B=100, A=125, so reduction is 25/125.

  9. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Increase

    9. A value rises from 250 to 300. Increase percent is:

    • A. 10%
    • B. 15%
    • C. 20% (Correct)
    • D. 25%

    Explanation: Increase is 50 on base 250.

  10. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Decrease

    10. A price falls from 800 to 720. Decrease percent is:

    • A. 8%
    • B. 10% (Correct)
    • C. 12%
    • D. 15%

    Explanation: Decrease is 80 on 800.

  11. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Marks

    11. A student scores 270 out of 360. Percentage marks are:

    • A. 70%
    • B. 72%
    • C. 75% (Correct)
    • D. 80%

    Explanation: 270/360 x 100 = 75%.

  12. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Population

    12. Population grows from 5000 to 5500. Increase percent is:

    • A. 8%
    • B. 10% (Correct)
    • C. 12%
    • D. 15%

    Explanation: Increase = 500, so 500/5000 x 100 = 10%.

  13. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Expenditure

    13. If income is Rs. 4000 and expenditure is Rs. 3000, expenditure percent of income is:

    • A. 70%
    • B. 75% (Correct)
    • C. 80%
    • D. 85%

    Explanation: 3000/4000 x 100 = 75%.

  14. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Successive Change

    14. A value increases by 20% and then by 10%. Net increase is:

    • A. 28%
    • B. 30%
    • C. 32% (Correct)
    • D. 34%

    Explanation: 1.2 x 1.1 = 1.32, so net increase is 32%.

  15. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Fraction to Percent

    15. 3/5 as a percent is:

    • A. 50%
    • B. 55%
    • C. 60% (Correct)
    • D. 65%

    Explanation: 3/5 x 100 = 60%.

  16. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Profit Percentage

    16. CP = 500 and SP = 600. Profit percent is:

    • A. 15%
    • B. 18%
    • C. 20% (Correct)
    • D. 22%

    Explanation: Profit = 100, so 100/500 x 100 = 20%.

  17. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Percentage & Discount

    17. Marked price Rs. 1500 with 20% discount gives selling price:

    • A. 1100
    • B. 1150
    • C. 1200 (Correct)
    • D. 1250

    Explanation: Discount = Rs. 300, so SP = Rs. 1200.

  18. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Ratio Percentage

    18. If boys:girls = 3:2 in a class, percentage of girls is:

    • A. 35%
    • B. 40% (Correct)
    • C. 45%
    • D. 50%

    Explanation: Girls are 2 out of total 5 parts.

  19. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Reverse Percentage

    19. After a 25% increase, a number becomes 500. Original number was:

    • A. 350
    • B. 375
    • C. 400 (Correct)
    • D. 425

    Explanation: Original x 1.25 = 500.

  20. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Pass Percentage

    20. If 96 students out of 120 pass, pass percentage is:

    • A. 75%
    • B. 80% (Correct)
    • C. 82%
    • D. 85%

    Explanation: 96/120 x 100 = 80%.

  21. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Dice

    21. If 2 is opposite 5 and 3 is opposite 4 on a dice, which number is opposite 1?

    • A. 2
    • B. 3
    • C. 4
    • D. 6 (Correct)

    Explanation: The remaining pair is 1 and 6.

  22. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Cube

    22. How many edges does a cube have?

    • A. 8
    • B. 10
    • C. 12 (Correct)
    • D. 14

    Explanation: A cube has 12 edges.

  23. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Cube

    23. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 125 equal cubes. How many have exactly two painted faces?

    • A. 24
    • B. 30
    • C. 36 (Correct)
    • D. 40

    Explanation: For 5 divisions per edge, exactly two painted faces = 12 x (5-2) = 36.

  24. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Dice

    24. Two opposite faces of a dice cannot be seen together in one view. If 1, 2 and 3 are visible together, which pair is definitely not opposite?

    • A. 1 and 2 (Correct)
    • B. 1 and 6
    • C. 2 and 5
    • D. 3 and 4

    Explanation: Faces visible together are adjacent, so 1 and 2 are definitely not opposite.

  25. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Cube

    25. A cube has how many faces?

    • A. 4
    • B. 5
    • C. 6 (Correct)
    • D. 8

    Explanation: A cube has six square faces.

  26. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Cube

    26. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 8 equal cubes. How many small cubes have three painted faces?

    • A. 4
    • B. 6
    • C. 8 (Correct)
    • D. 12

    Explanation: With 2 cuts per edge, all 8 small cubes are corner cubes with three painted faces.

  27. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Dice

    27. If 1 is opposite 6 and 2 is opposite 5 on a dice, which number is opposite 3?

    • A. 1
    • B. 2
    • C. 4 (Correct)
    • D. 6

    Explanation: The remaining opposite pair is 3 and 4.

  28. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Cube

    28. A cube painted on all faces is cut into 216 equal cubes. How many small cubes have no painted face?

    • A. 64 (Correct)
    • B. 80
    • C. 96
    • D. 100

    Explanation: 216 = 6^3, so inner unpainted cubes = (6 - 2)^3 = 64.

  29. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Dice

    29. If two faces visible together are 2 and 4, what can be concluded?

    • A. They are adjacent (Correct)
    • B. They are opposite
    • C. Both are top faces
    • D. They are equal

    Explanation: Faces visible together in one view of a dice are adjacent, not opposite.

  30. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Cube

    30. How many corner cubes are there in any large cube cut into smaller equal cubes?

    • A. 4
    • B. 6
    • C. 8 (Correct)
    • D. 12

    Explanation: Every cube has 8 corners, so there are 8 corner cubes.

  31. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Non-Verbal Reasoning

    31. A vertical mirror is placed to the right of the word CAT. Which letter changes shape in the mirror image?

    • A. C (Correct)
    • B. A
    • C. T
    • D. None

    Explanation: C reverses direction in a vertical mirror image.

  32. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Mirror Image

    32. In a vertical mirror, the left side of an object appears on the:

    • A. Left
    • B. Right (Correct)
    • C. Top
    • D. Bottom

    Explanation: A vertical mirror reverses left and right.

  33. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Paper Folding

    33. A square paper is folded once vertically and punched at the centre of the folded edge. On opening, how many holes appear?

    • A. 1
    • B. 2 (Correct)
    • C. 3
    • D. 4

    Explanation: One fold creates two symmetric holes after opening.

  34. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Embedded Figure

    34. A triangle hidden inside a larger star-like figure is an example of which question type?

    • A. Mirror image
    • B. Embedded figure (Correct)
    • C. Calendar
    • D. Syllogism

    Explanation: The task asks to locate a simple figure hidden in a complex figure.

  35. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Non-Verbal Series

    35. If a figure rotates 90 degrees clockwise in each step, after four steps it will be:

    • A. Same as original (Correct)
    • B. Opposite
    • C. Mirror image
    • D. Upside down only

    Explanation: Four rotations of 90 degrees make a full 360-degree turn.

  36. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Water Image

    36. A water image mainly reverses an object in which direction?

    • A. Left-right
    • B. Top-bottom (Correct)
    • C. Both always
    • D. No reversal

    Explanation: A water image is a vertical reflection, reversing top and bottom.

  37. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Paper Cutting

    37. A paper folded twice and punched once can produce how many holes at most when opened?

    • A. 2
    • B. 3
    • C. 4 (Correct)
    • D. 5

    Explanation: Two folds can create four layers, so one punch can make four holes.

  38. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Mirror Image

    38. In a plane mirror, the image of an object is generally:

    • A. Laterally inverted (Correct)
    • B. Smaller always
    • C. Larger always
    • D. Rotated by 90 degrees

    Explanation: Plane mirrors produce lateral inversion.

  39. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Figure Completion

    39. Finding the missing part that completes a symmetric pattern belongs to:

    • A. Figure completion (Correct)
    • B. Blood relation
    • C. Profit loss
    • D. Clock

    Explanation: The question asks for completion of a visual pattern.

  40. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Non-Verbal Reasoning

    40. If a shape sequence alternates circle, square, triangle, circle, square, then the next shape is:

    • A. Circle
    • B. Square
    • C. Triangle (Correct)
    • D. Rectangle

    Explanation: The sequence repeats in the order circle, square, triangle.

  41. Session II — General Awareness and English — Modal

    41. Candidates _____ carry their ID proof to the centre.

    • A. must (Correct)
    • B. might
    • C. used to
    • D. dare

    Explanation: 'Must' expresses strong requirement.

  42. Session II — General Awareness and English — Question Tag

    42. Nobody called you, _____?

    • A. did they (Correct)
    • B. did he
    • C. didn't they
    • D. wasn't it

    Explanation: Negative indefinite pronouns take positive tags; 'they' is commonly used.

  43. Session II — General Awareness and English — Conditional

    43. If she studies regularly, she _____ the exam easily.

    • A. pass
    • B. passed
    • C. will pass (Correct)
    • D. would pass

    Explanation: First conditional uses present in the if-clause and future in the main clause.

  44. Session II — General Awareness and English — Verb Form

    44. The teacher made the students _____ the answer again.

    • A. write (Correct)
    • B. to write
    • C. writing
    • D. wrote

    Explanation: 'Make' takes the base verb in active voice.

  45. Session II — General Awareness and English — Pronoun

    45. Every player must bring _____ own kit.

    • A. their
    • B. his or her (Correct)
    • C. our
    • D. its

    Explanation: Formal singular agreement with 'every' takes 'his or her'.

  46. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    46. 'At the eleventh hour' means:

    • A. very early
    • B. at the last moment (Correct)
    • C. in a hurry
    • D. every hour

    Explanation: The phrase refers to something done just before the deadline.

  47. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    47. 'A piece of cake' means:

    • A. a bakery item
    • B. very difficult
    • C. very easy (Correct)
    • D. half done

    Explanation: The idiom means something simple to do.

  48. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    48. 'Call it a day' means:

    • A. begin a task
    • B. stop working for the day (Correct)
    • C. phone someone
    • D. name the date

    Explanation: The phrase means to end the day's activity.

  49. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    49. 'Hit the nail on the head' means:

    • A. repair furniture
    • B. say exactly the right thing (Correct)
    • C. injure oneself
    • D. miss the point

    Explanation: It refers to being exactly correct.

  50. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    50. 'Under the weather' means:

    • A. outside in rain
    • B. slightly ill (Correct)
    • C. very rich
    • D. deeply confused

    Explanation: The expression means not feeling well.

  51. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    51. 'Burn the midnight oil' means:

    • A. work late into the night (Correct)
    • B. waste fuel
    • C. celebrate at night
    • D. sleep early

    Explanation: It refers to studying or working very late.

  52. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    52. 'Break the ice' means:

    • A. shatter a frozen object
    • B. start a friendly interaction (Correct)
    • C. ruin a plan
    • D. stay silent

    Explanation: The idiom means removing awkwardness and beginning conversation.

  53. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    53. 'Spill the beans' means:

    • A. cook food
    • B. reveal a secret (Correct)
    • C. make a mess
    • D. waste time

    Explanation: It means to disclose something hidden.

  54. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    54. 'In black and white' means:

    • A. in colourless form
    • B. in writing (Correct)
    • C. very old
    • D. under doubt

    Explanation: The phrase refers to something recorded in written form.

  55. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    55. 'Once in a blue moon' means:

    • A. daily
    • B. rarely (Correct)
    • C. at night
    • D. suddenly

    Explanation: It describes something that happens infrequently.

  56. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    56. 'By leaps and bounds' means:

    • A. slowly
    • B. with difficulty
    • C. very rapidly (Correct)
    • D. without logic

    Explanation: The phrase means at a very fast rate.

  57. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    57. 'Cost an arm and a leg' means:

    • A. cause injury
    • B. be very expensive (Correct)
    • C. require effort
    • D. need medical care

    Explanation: The idiom refers to a very high price.

  58. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    58. 'Read between the lines' means:

    • A. read softly
    • B. find the hidden meaning (Correct)
    • C. skip lines
    • D. read quickly

    Explanation: It means understanding what is implied, not directly stated.

  59. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    59. 'On cloud nine' means:

    • A. flying high
    • B. extremely happy (Correct)
    • C. completely lost
    • D. deeply tired

    Explanation: The idiom means very joyful.

  60. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    60. 'Keep an eye on' means:

    • A. blink often
    • B. watch carefully (Correct)
    • C. draw a picture
    • D. ignore completely

    Explanation: The phrase means to observe closely.

  61. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    61. 'In hot water' means:

    • A. taking a bath
    • B. in trouble (Correct)
    • C. working in heat
    • D. fully prepared

    Explanation: The phrase means facing difficulty or blame.

  62. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    62. 'Beat around the bush' means:

    • A. avoid the main point (Correct)
    • B. move quickly
    • C. win a fight
    • D. speak politely

    Explanation: It means talking indirectly without coming to the point.

  63. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    63. 'On the same page' means:

    • A. reading one book
    • B. in agreement (Correct)
    • C. inside a notebook
    • D. standing together

    Explanation: The phrase means sharing the same understanding.

  64. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    64. 'Throw in the towel' means:

    • A. clean a room
    • B. surrender (Correct)
    • C. begin a fight
    • D. join a team

    Explanation: The phrase means to give up.

  65. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    65. 'The ball is in your court' means:

    • A. you are playing
    • B. it is your decision now (Correct)
    • C. you lost the game
    • D. the match is over

    Explanation: Responsibility has shifted to you.

  66. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    66. The river known as Dakshin Ganga is:

    • A. Krishna
    • B. Godavari (Correct)
    • C. Cauvery
    • D. Mahanadi

    Explanation: Godavari is often called Dakshin Ganga.

  67. Session II — General Awareness and English — Physics

    67. The unit of electric power is:

    • A. ampere
    • B. watt (Correct)
    • C. ohm
    • D. newton

    Explanation: Electric power is measured in watts.

  68. Session II — General Awareness and English — Chemistry

    68. Water boils at standard atmospheric pressure at:

    • A. 90 C
    • B. 95 C
    • C. 100 C (Correct)
    • D. 110 C

    Explanation: Water boils at 100 C under standard pressure.

  69. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    69. The capital of Assam is:

    • A. Dispur (Correct)
    • B. Guwahati
    • C. Shillong
    • D. Agartala

    Explanation: Dispur is the capital of Assam.

  70. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    70. Kaziranga National Park is located in:

    • A. Assam (Correct)
    • B. Odisha
    • C. Kerala
    • D. Gujarat

    Explanation: Kaziranga National Park is in Assam.

  71. Session II — General Awareness and English — Science

    71. The SI unit of power is:

    • A. joule
    • B. watt (Correct)
    • C. pascal
    • D. newton

    Explanation: Power is measured in watts.

  72. Session II — General Awareness and English — Biology

    72. The study of heredity is called:

    • A. geology
    • B. genetics (Correct)
    • C. optics
    • D. ecology

    Explanation: Genetics deals with heredity.

  73. Session II — General Awareness and English — Chemistry

    73. Bauxite is an ore of:

    • A. iron
    • B. copper
    • C. aluminium (Correct)
    • D. silver

    Explanation: Bauxite is the chief ore of aluminium.

  74. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    74. The highest peak in India is:

    • A. Nanda Devi
    • B. Kanchenjunga (Correct)
    • C. Anamudi
    • D. Kamet

    Explanation: Kanchenjunga is regarded as the highest peak in India.

  75. Session II — General Awareness and English — Science

    75. The ozone layer protects us from:

    • A. infrared rays
    • B. ultraviolet rays (Correct)
    • C. radio waves
    • D. sound waves

    Explanation: The ozone layer absorbs harmful UV radiation.

  76. Session II — General Awareness and English — Biology

    76. Blood group known as universal donor is:

    • A. A positive
    • B. AB positive
    • C. O negative (Correct)
    • D. B negative

    Explanation: O negative is commonly called the universal donor.

  77. Session II — General Awareness and English — Physics

    77. Sound cannot travel through:

    • A. air
    • B. water
    • C. steel
    • D. vacuum (Correct)

    Explanation: Sound needs a material medium to travel.

  78. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    78. The smallest continent is:

    • A. Europe
    • B. Australia (Correct)
    • C. Antarctica
    • D. South America

    Explanation: Australia is the smallest continent.

  79. Session II — General Awareness and English — Chemistry

    79. The pH value of pure water is:

    • A. 5
    • B. 6
    • C. 7 (Correct)
    • D. 8

    Explanation: Pure water is neutral with pH 7.

  80. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    80. Loktak Lake is located in:

    • A. Manipur (Correct)
    • B. Mizoram
    • C. Assam
    • D. Sikkim

    Explanation: Loktak Lake is in Manipur.

  81. Session II — General Awareness and English — Physics

    81. A battery converts _____ energy into electrical energy.

    • A. light
    • B. sound
    • C. chemical (Correct)
    • D. heat

    Explanation: A battery converts chemical energy into electrical energy.

  82. Session II — General Awareness and English — Science

    82. Mercury is the only common metal that is liquid at:

    • A. high pressure
    • B. room temperature (Correct)
    • C. low temperature only
    • D. boiling point

    Explanation: Mercury is liquid at room temperature.

  83. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    83. The capital of Rajasthan is:

    • A. Udaipur
    • B. Jodhpur
    • C. Jaipur (Correct)
    • D. Ajmer

    Explanation: Jaipur is the capital of Rajasthan.

  84. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    84. The river Brahmaputra enters India through:

    • A. Punjab
    • B. Arunachal Pradesh (Correct)
    • C. Sikkim
    • D. Uttarakhand

    Explanation: The Brahmaputra enters India through Arunachal Pradesh.

  85. Session II — General Awareness and English — Science

    85. The SI unit of temperature is:

    • A. Celsius
    • B. Kelvin (Correct)
    • C. Fahrenheit
    • D. Joule

    Explanation: Kelvin is the SI unit of temperature.

  86. Session II — General Awareness and English — Biology

    86. The green pigment in plants is:

    • A. chlorine
    • B. chlorophyll (Correct)
    • C. cytoplasm
    • D. haemoglobin

    Explanation: Chlorophyll helps plants absorb sunlight for photosynthesis.

  87. Session II — General Awareness and English — Chemistry

    87. The common gas essential for respiration is:

    • A. nitrogen
    • B. oxygen (Correct)
    • C. helium
    • D. argon

    Explanation: Oxygen is essential for respiration.

  88. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    88. The largest plateau in India is:

    • A. Malwa Plateau
    • B. Deccan Plateau (Correct)
    • C. Chota Nagpur Plateau
    • D. Shillong Plateau

    Explanation: The Deccan Plateau is the largest plateau in India.

  89. Session II — General Awareness and English — Science

    89. The process by which water changes into vapour is:

    • A. condensation
    • B. evaporation (Correct)
    • C. freezing
    • D. fusion

    Explanation: Evaporation converts liquid water into vapour.

  90. Session II — General Awareness and English — Biology

    90. Which organ purifies blood in the human body?

    • A. heart
    • B. kidney (Correct)
    • C. lungs
    • D. stomach

    Explanation: Kidneys filter waste from blood.