Competitive Practice

SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 6

Attempt a separate 90-question validated paper with two locked 45-minute sessions, current scoring and explanation review.

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SSC MTS 2026

SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 6

A validated 90-question MTS simulation. Session I has Numerical Ability and Reasoning with no negative marking; Session II has General Awareness and English with a one-mark penalty for each wrong answer.

Questions
90
Duration
45 min / section
Marking
+3; no penalty in I, -1 in II (Max 270)
Sections
Session I: 40 | Session II: 50

Question Palette Legend

1Not Visited1Not Answered1Answered1Marked for Review1Answered + Marked
Preview all 90 questions in SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 6 (no login required)
  1. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Comparison

    1. A is 20% more than B. B is what percent less than A?

    • A. 15%
    • B. 16.67% (Correct)
    • C. 18%
    • D. 20%

    Explanation: If B = 100, A = 120. Difference as a percent of A is 20/120.

  2. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Basic Percent

    2. What is 15% of 480?

    • A. 60
    • B. 66
    • C. 72 (Correct)
    • D. 78

    Explanation: 480 × 15/100 = 72.

  3. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Percentage Increase

    3. A number increases from 200 to 250. Percentage increase is:

    • A. 20%
    • B. 25% (Correct)
    • C. 30%
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: Increase = 50, % = 50/200 × 100 = 25%.

  4. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Percentage Decrease

    4. Price of an item falls from ₹600 to ₹480. Percentage decrease is:

    • A. 15%
    • B. 18%
    • C. 20% (Correct)
    • D. 25%

    Explanation: Decrease = 120, % = 120/600 × 100 = 20%.

  5. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Expenditure

    5. A family spends 40% of income on food, 25% on rent. What percent is left?

    • A. 30%
    • B. 35% (Correct)
    • C. 40%
    • D. 45%

    Explanation: 100 − 40 − 25 = 35%.

  6. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Population

    6. Population of a town is 15000. It increases by 10% annually. Population after 2 years is:

    • A. 18000
    • B. 18150 (Correct)
    • C. 18200
    • D. 18300

    Explanation: 15000 × 1.1 × 1.1 = 15000 × 1.21 = 18150.

  7. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Basic Percent

    7. What percent of 250 is 75?

    • A. 25%
    • B. 28%
    • C. 30% (Correct)
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: 75/250 × 100 = 30%.

  8. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Successive Change

    8. A price increases by 20% then decreases by 20%. Net change is:

    • A. 0%
    • B. −4% (Correct)
    • C. +4%
    • D. −2%

    Explanation: Net = 1.2 × 0.8 = 0.96, so −4%.

  9. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Expenditure

    9. Income is ₹8000. Savings are 15%. What is expenditure?

    • A. ₹6800 (Correct)
    • B. ₹6600
    • C. ₹6400
    • D. ₹6200

    Explanation: Savings = 1200. Expenditure = 8000−1200 = 6800.

  10. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Marks Percentage

    10. A student scores 360 marks out of 500. Percentage is:

    • A. 62%
    • B. 68%
    • C. 72% (Correct)
    • D. 78%

    Explanation: 360/500 × 100 = 72%.

  11. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Percentage Increase

    11. If 20% of x is 80, what is x?

    • A. 300
    • B. 350
    • C. 400 (Correct)
    • D. 450

    Explanation: x = 80 × 100/20 = 400.

  12. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Comparison

    12. X's salary is 20% less than Y's. Y's salary is what percent more than X's?

    • A. 20%
    • B. 25% (Correct)
    • C. 30%
    • D. 33.33%

    Explanation: If X=80, Y=100. Y is more than X by 20/80×100=25%.

  13. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Population

    13. Population decreases by 5% per year. If current population is 40000, what was it 2 years ago?

    • A. 44280
    • B. 44289 (Correct)
    • C. 44290
    • D. 44300

    Explanation: 40000 = P × 0.95^2 → P = 40000/0.9025 ≈ 44289.

  14. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Basic Percent

    14. What is 12.5% of 800?

    • A. 80
    • B. 90
    • C. 100 (Correct)
    • D. 110

    Explanation: 12.5% = 1/8. 800/8 = 100.

  15. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Successive Change

    15. Price rises 10% in year 1 and 10% in year 2. Effective rise over 2 years is:

    • A. 20%
    • B. 21% (Correct)
    • C. 22%
    • D. 23%

    Explanation: 1.1 × 1.1 = 1.21 → 21% rise.

  16. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Election

    16. In an election, candidate A got 55% of valid votes. B got 1800 votes. Total valid votes were:

    • A. 3600
    • B. 3800
    • C. 4000 (Correct)
    • D. 4200

    Explanation: B got 45%. 45% = 1800 → Total = 4000.

  17. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Salary

    17. Salary of a worker increases by 20% and then decreases by 20%. Net change:

    • A. No change
    • B. 4% decrease (Correct)
    • C. 4% increase
    • D. 2% decrease

    Explanation: 1.2 × 0.8 = 0.96 → 4% decrease.

  18. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Marks

    18. A student needs 40% to pass. He gets 200 marks and fails by 20 marks. Max marks:

    • A. 500
    • B. 550 (Correct)
    • C. 600
    • D. 650

    Explanation: Pass marks=220. 40% of max=220 → max=550.

  19. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Percentage

    19. 3/8 expressed as a percentage is:

    • A. 30.5%
    • B. 37.5% (Correct)
    • C. 33.5%
    • D. 38.5%

    Explanation: 3/8 × 100 = 37.5%.

  20. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Population

    20. Population of a village was 10000. It grew 10% in year 1 and fell 10% in year 2. Final population:

    • A. 9800
    • B. 9900 (Correct)
    • C. 10000
    • D. 10100

    Explanation: 10000×1.1×0.9 = 9900.

  21. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Mirror Image

    21. A vertical mirror image of the digit 3 most closely looks like:

    • A. Reversed 3 (Correct)
    • B. Same 3
    • C. Upside-down 3
    • D. 0

    Explanation: A vertical mirror reverses the left-right direction of the digit.

  22. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Paper Folding

    22. A square paper is folded horizontally and then vertically. One hole is punched through all layers. How many holes appear after unfolding?

    • A. 2
    • B. 3
    • C. 4 (Correct)
    • D. 8

    Explanation: Two folds create four layers, so one punch gives four symmetric holes.

  23. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Non-Verbal Series

    23. A shape sequence is star, circle, star, circle, star. The next shape is:

    • A. Star
    • B. Circle (Correct)
    • C. Triangle
    • D. Square

    Explanation: The pattern alternates star and circle.

  24. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Water Image

    24. In a water image, the top of the object appears at the:

    • A. Top
    • B. Bottom (Correct)
    • C. Left
    • D. Right

    Explanation: A water image reverses the object vertically.

  25. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Embedded Figure

    25. Finding a square hidden inside a complex design is a question of:

    • A. Embedded figure (Correct)
    • B. Clock
    • C. Calendar
    • D. Ranking

    Explanation: Embedded figure questions ask the student to locate a simple shape inside a complex one.

  26. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    26. Which word comes first in dictionary order?

    • A. Apply
    • B. Apple
    • C. Apex (Correct)
    • D. April

    Explanation: Apex comes before Apple, Apply and April alphabetically.

  27. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    27. Arrange in dictionary order: Cat, Cap, Can, Car. Which comes second?

    • A. Can
    • B. Cap (Correct)
    • C. Car
    • D. Cat

    Explanation: Order is Can, Cap, Car, Cat.

  28. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    28. If the letters of TABLE are arranged alphabetically, which letter is third?

    • A. A
    • B. B
    • C. E (Correct)
    • D. L

    Explanation: Alphabetical order is A, B, E, L, T.

  29. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    29. Which word comes last in dictionary order?

    • A. Train (Correct)
    • B. Trace
    • C. Trade
    • D. Track

    Explanation: After Tra, compare fourth letters: c, d, c, i. Train comes last.

  30. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    30. Arrange: CLEAR, CLEAN, CLERK, CLEVER. Which is third?

    • A. CLEAN
    • B. CLEAR
    • C. CLERK (Correct)
    • D. CLEVER

    Explanation: Order is CLEAN, CLEAR, CLERK, CLEVER.

  31. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    31. If letters of ROSE are arranged alphabetically, the new word starts with:

    • A. E (Correct)
    • B. O
    • C. R
    • D. S

    Explanation: Alphabetical order is E, O, R, S.

  32. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    32. Which word comes immediately after BARK in dictionary order?

    • A. BAR
    • B. BARN (Correct)
    • C. BARD
    • D. BARE

    Explanation: Among the options after BARK, BARN is the nearest later word.

  33. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    33. Arrange in dictionary order: MAN, MANY, MANGO, MAP. Which comes first?

    • A. MAN (Correct)
    • B. MANY
    • C. MANGO
    • D. MAP

    Explanation: MAN is a complete prefix and comes before MANGO and MANY.

  34. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    34. If the letters of REASON are arranged in reverse alphabetical order, which letter is fourth?

    • A. R
    • B. S
    • C. O
    • D. N (Correct)

    Explanation: Reverse alphabetical order is S, R, O, N, E, A, so the fourth letter is N.

  35. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    35. Among Station, Statue, Status and Static, which word comes first in dictionary order?

    • A. Station
    • B. Statue
    • C. Status
    • D. Static (Correct)

    Explanation: After Stat, compare i, u, u, u; Static comes first.

  36. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    36. Arrange in dictionary order: BRAVE, BREAD, BREAK, BRICK. Which word comes second?

    • A. BRAVE
    • B. BREAD (Correct)
    • C. BREAK
    • D. BRICK

    Explanation: Order is BRAVE, BREAD, BREAK, BRICK.

  37. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    37. If letters of PLANT are arranged alphabetically, which letter comes last?

    • A. A
    • B. L
    • C. P
    • D. T (Correct)

    Explanation: Alphabetical order is A, L, N, P, T.

  38. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    38. Among Crown, Crowd, Crawl and Crane, which word comes first in dictionary order?

    • A. Crown
    • B. Crowd
    • C. Crawl
    • D. Crane (Correct)

    Explanation: After Cra, n comes before w; Crane comes before Crawl, Crowd and Crown.

  39. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    39. Arrange AUTHOR, AUNT, AURORA, AUDIO in dictionary order. Which comes third?

    • A. AUDIO
    • B. AUNT
    • C. AURORA (Correct)
    • D. AUTHOR

    Explanation: Order is AUDIO, AUNT, AURORA, AUTHOR.

  40. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Word Arrangement

    40. If the letters of GARDEN are arranged alphabetically, which letter is fifth?

    • A. A
    • B. D
    • C. N (Correct)
    • D. R

    Explanation: Alphabetical order is A, D, E, G, N, R, so the fifth letter is N.

  41. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    41. 'Go the extra mile' means:

    • A. travel physically
    • B. make more effort than expected (Correct)
    • C. leave early
    • D. take a wrong route

    Explanation: It means doing more than the minimum required.

  42. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    42. 'Through thick and thin' means:

    • A. in every season
    • B. under all conditions (Correct)
    • C. by cleverness
    • D. for a short time

    Explanation: The phrase means during good and bad times alike.

  43. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    43. 'Miss the boat' means:

    • A. travel late
    • B. lose an opportunity (Correct)
    • C. forget luggage
    • D. cross a river

    Explanation: It refers to failing to act at the right time.

  44. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    44. 'At loggerheads' means:

    • A. fully united
    • B. in strong disagreement (Correct)
    • C. working silently
    • D. out of energy

    Explanation: It describes people in serious conflict.

  45. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    45. 'Bite off more than you can chew' means:

    • A. eat too fast
    • B. take on more than you can handle (Correct)
    • C. waste food
    • D. speak without thinking

    Explanation: The idiom refers to overcommitting yourself.

  46. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    46. 'Make both ends meet' means:

    • A. join two things
    • B. manage financially (Correct)
    • C. solve a puzzle
    • D. finish quickly

    Explanation: It means living within limited income.

  47. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    47. 'Back to square one' means:

    • A. return to the starting point (Correct)
    • B. move in circles
    • C. win easily
    • D. stand in a corner

    Explanation: It means starting all over again.

  48. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    48. 'In the nick of time' means:

    • A. too early
    • B. at the exact last moment (Correct)
    • C. after a long delay
    • D. on a holiday

    Explanation: The phrase means just in time.

  49. Session II — General Awareness and English — Idiom

    49. 'A storm in a teacup' means:

    • A. a weather report
    • B. a small issue made to seem big (Correct)
    • C. a difficult debate
    • D. a happy event

    Explanation: It means exaggerating a minor matter.

  50. Session II — General Awareness and English — Phrase

    50. 'At daggers drawn' means:

    • A. in close friendship
    • B. in bitter conflict (Correct)
    • C. carrying weapons
    • D. ready for travel

    Explanation: The phrase means openly hostile.

  51. Session II — General Awareness and English — Comprehension

    51. A passage that mainly explains facts in a direct way is usually:

    • A. narrative
    • B. expository (Correct)
    • C. poetic
    • D. dramatic

    Explanation: Expository writing is used to inform and explain.

  52. Session II — General Awareness and English — Main Idea

    52. The main idea of a paragraph is the:

    • A. least important detail
    • B. central point being discussed (Correct)
    • C. first difficult word
    • D. last sentence only

    Explanation: The main idea is the author's primary message.

  53. Session II — General Awareness and English — Inference

    53. If a passage says a road was deserted and shops were shut, it can be inferred that the area was:

    • A. crowded
    • B. busy
    • C. quiet (Correct)
    • D. noisy

    Explanation: Those details suggest a silent and inactive place.

  54. Session II — General Awareness and English — Vocabulary in Context

    54. In comprehension, the meaning of a difficult word is often understood by using:

    • A. random guess only
    • B. context clues (Correct)
    • C. rhyming words
    • D. alphabetical order

    Explanation: Nearby ideas and sentence logic often reveal meaning.

  55. Session II — General Awareness and English — Title

    55. A suitable title for a passage should be:

    • A. unrelated but catchy
    • B. too long and detailed
    • C. closely connected to the main idea (Correct)
    • D. just one random word

    Explanation: The best title reflects the central theme.

  56. Session II — General Awareness and English — Tone

    56. A passage praising discipline and hard work is likely to have a _____ tone.

    • A. critical
    • B. appreciative (Correct)
    • C. comic
    • D. careless

    Explanation: Positive approval suggests an appreciative tone.

  57. Session II — General Awareness and English — Fact vs Opinion

    57. Which of the following is an opinion?

    • A. Water boils at 100 C at standard pressure.
    • B. The sun rises in the east.
    • C. Reading is the most rewarding habit. (Correct)
    • D. India adopted its Constitution in 1950.

    Explanation: That is a value judgment, not a verifiable fact.

  58. Session II — General Awareness and English — Inference

    58. If an author describes a plan as ambitious but unrealistic, the implied attitude is:

    • A. full approval
    • B. cautious doubt (Correct)
    • C. complete excitement
    • D. indifference

    Explanation: The author seems skeptical while still recognizing ambition.

  59. Session II — General Awareness and English — Purpose

    59. An author writing about water conservation is most likely trying to:

    • A. confuse the reader
    • B. entertain only
    • C. inform or persuade (Correct)
    • D. describe a movie

    Explanation: Such passages often aim to educate and influence readers.

  60. Session II — General Awareness and English — Sequence

    60. Signal words like 'first', 'next', and 'finally' help identify:

    • A. character names
    • B. time or order (Correct)
    • C. grammar errors
    • D. sound effects

    Explanation: They indicate sequence in the passage.

  61. Session II — General Awareness and English — Cause and Effect

    61. If crop failure followed a long drought, the drought is the:

    • A. effect
    • B. cause (Correct)
    • C. opinion
    • D. title

    Explanation: The drought led to the crop failure.

  62. Session II — General Awareness and English — Tone

    62. A passage mocking unnecessary luxury has a likely tone of:

    • A. admiration
    • B. sarcasm (Correct)
    • C. sympathy
    • D. fear

    Explanation: Mocking language usually signals sarcasm.

  63. Session II — General Awareness and English — Main Idea

    63. Details in a paragraph should support the:

    • A. author's signature
    • B. main idea (Correct)
    • C. margin width
    • D. first noun only

    Explanation: Supporting details explain or strengthen the central message.

  64. Session II — General Awareness and English — Reading Skill

    64. Skimming is mainly used to:

    • A. memorize every word
    • B. get the general idea quickly (Correct)
    • C. correct grammar
    • D. translate the passage

    Explanation: Skimming helps readers understand the broad meaning fast.

  65. Session II — General Awareness and English — Comprehension

    65. A paragraph describing a village fair with colours and sounds is likely to be:

    • A. descriptive (Correct)
    • B. legal
    • C. statistical
    • D. technical

    Explanation: Descriptive writing focuses on sensory details.

  66. Session II — General Awareness and English — Physics

    66. A device used to measure electric current is:

    • A. voltmeter
    • B. ammeter (Correct)
    • C. barometer
    • D. thermometer

    Explanation: Current is measured using an ammeter.

  67. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    67. The southernmost point of the Indian mainland is:

    • A. Indira Point
    • B. Kanyakumari (Correct)
    • C. Rameswaram
    • D. Port Blair

    Explanation: Kanyakumari is the southernmost point of the Indian mainland.

  68. Session II — General Awareness and English — Chemistry

    68. The chemical formula of common salt is:

    • A. NaCl (Correct)
    • B. KCl
    • C. NaOH
    • D. HCl

    Explanation: Common salt is sodium chloride, NaCl.

  69. Session II — General Awareness and English — Biology

    69. Which blood vessels carry blood away from the heart?

    • A. veins
    • B. arteries (Correct)
    • C. capillaries
    • D. nerves

    Explanation: Arteries carry blood away from the heart.

  70. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    70. The highest waterfall in India is commonly associated with:

    • A. Jog Falls (Correct)
    • B. Dudhsagar
    • C. Athirappilly
    • D. Chitrakote

    Explanation: Jog Falls is one of India's highest major waterfalls and a standard SSC GK answer.

  71. Session II — General Awareness and English — Physics

    71. The speed of sound is highest in:

    • A. vacuum
    • B. air
    • C. water
    • D. steel (Correct)

    Explanation: Sound travels fastest in solids such as steel.

  72. Session II — General Awareness and English — Science

    72. The gas absorbed by plants during photosynthesis is:

    • A. oxygen
    • B. carbon dioxide (Correct)
    • C. nitrogen
    • D. hydrogen

    Explanation: Plants absorb carbon dioxide for photosynthesis.

  73. Session II — General Awareness and English — Geography

    73. The capital of Uttarakhand is:

    • A. Nainital
    • B. Dehradun (Correct)
    • C. Haridwar
    • D. Shimla

    Explanation: Dehradun is the capital of Uttarakhand.

  74. Session II — General Awareness and English — Biology

    74. The basic unit of life is the:

    • A. tissue
    • B. organ
    • C. cell (Correct)
    • D. atom

    Explanation: The cell is the structural and functional unit of life.

  75. Session II — General Awareness and English — Chemistry

    75. Water is a compound of:

    • A. hydrogen and oxygen (Correct)
    • B. oxygen and nitrogen
    • C. hydrogen and carbon
    • D. nitrogen and chlorine

    Explanation: Water consists of hydrogen and oxygen.

  76. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    76. The Constitution of India came into force on:

    • A. 26 January 1950 (Correct)
    • B. 26 November 1949
    • C. 2 October 1950
    • D. 15 August 1947

    Explanation: The correct answer is 26 January 1950.

  77. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    77. Which gas is essential for respiration?

    • A. Hydrogen
    • B. Carbon dioxide
    • C. Oxygen (Correct)
    • D. Nitrogen

    Explanation: The correct answer is Oxygen.

  78. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    78. The chemical symbol of potassium is:

    • A. Pt
    • B. Po
    • C. P
    • D. K (Correct)

    Explanation: The correct answer is K.

  79. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    79. The largest state of India by area is:

    • A. Uttar Pradesh
    • B. Madhya Pradesh
    • C. Rajasthan (Correct)
    • D. Maharashtra

    Explanation: The correct answer is Rajasthan.

  80. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    80. The upper house of Indian Parliament is:

    • A. Vidhan Sabha
    • B. Rajya Sabha (Correct)
    • C. Lok Sabha
    • D. Gram Sabha

    Explanation: The correct answer is Rajya Sabha.

  81. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    81. Which vitamin is synthesized in human skin following exposure to sunlight?

    • A. Vitamin A
    • B. Vitamin C
    • C. Vitamin D (Correct)
    • D. Vitamin B

    Explanation: The correct answer is Vitamin D.

  82. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    82. The pH of pure water at 25 degrees Celsius is:

    • A. 5
    • B. 7 (Correct)
    • C. 8
    • D. 6

    Explanation: The correct answer is 7.

  83. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    83. The headquarters of the United Nations is located in:

    • A. Geneva
    • B. Paris
    • C. New York (Correct)
    • D. London

    Explanation: The correct answer is New York.

  84. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    84. Who is known as the Father of the Indian Constitution?

    • A. Sardar Patel
    • B. Jawaharlal Nehru
    • C. Mahatma Gandhi
    • D. B. R. Ambedkar (Correct)

    Explanation: The correct answer is B. R. Ambedkar.

  85. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    85. Which river is called the Dakshin Ganga?

    • A. Krishna
    • B. Kaveri
    • C. Godavari (Correct)
    • D. Narmada

    Explanation: The correct answer is Godavari.

  86. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    86. The Tropic of Cancer passes through how many Indian states?

    • A. 6
    • B. 9
    • C. 8 (Correct)
    • D. 7

    Explanation: The correct answer is 8.

  87. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    87. Which organ filters blood in the human body?

    • A. Lung
    • B. Stomach
    • C. Heart
    • D. Kidney (Correct)

    Explanation: The correct answer is Kidney.

  88. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    88. The currency of Japan is:

    • A. Ringgit
    • B. Won
    • C. Yen (Correct)
    • D. Yuan

    Explanation: The correct answer is Yen.

  89. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    89. Directive Principles in India are inspired mainly by:

    • A. France
    • B. USA
    • C. Canada
    • D. Ireland (Correct)

    Explanation: The correct answer is Ireland.

  90. Session II — General Awareness and English — General Awareness Mixed Practice

    90. Who was the first President of India?

    • A. Jawaharlal Nehru
    • B. Sardar Patel
    • C. Dr. Rajendra Prasad (Correct)
    • D. C. Rajagopalachari

    Explanation: The correct answer is Dr. Rajendra Prasad.