SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 1

1. The price of petrol rises by 25%, but a person wants his monthly petrol expense to rise by only 5%. By what percent should he reduce consumption?

• A. 12%
• B. 14%
• C. 16% (Correct)
• D. 18%

Explanation: Let old price and consumption be 100 each. New expense target = 10500. New price = 125, so new consumption = 10500/125 = 84. Reduction = 16%.

2. After two successive discounts of 10% and 20%, an article is sold for Rs. 1,440. What was the marked price?

• A. Rs. 1,800
• B. Rs. 1,900
• C. Rs. 2,000 (Correct)
• D. Rs. 2,100

Explanation: Net selling factor = 0.9 x 0.8 = 0.72. Marked price = 1440/0.72 = 2000.

3. A is 40% more than B. If B is decreased by 20%, A becomes what percent more than the new value of B?

• A. 65%
• B. 70%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 80%

Explanation: Let B = 100, so A = 140. New B = 80. A is more by 60 on 80, so percent more = 75%.

4. A town's population increases by 12% in the first year and decreases by 10% in the second year. If the initial population was 50,000, find the final population.

• A. 49,800
• B. 50,400 (Correct)
• C. 50,800
• D. 51,200

Explanation: Final population = 50000 x 1.12 x 0.90 = 50400.

5. A candidate scored 32% marks and failed by 18 marks. If he had scored 38%, he would have passed by 12 marks. Find the maximum marks.

• A. 450
• B. 500 (Correct)
• C. 550
• D. 600

Explanation: Difference between 38% and 32% = 6%, which equals 30 marks. Therefore 100% = 30 x 100/6 = 500.

6. A salary is first increased by 20% and then by 25%. The new salary is Rs. 45,000. What was the original salary?

• A. Rs. 28,000
• B. Rs. 30,000 (Correct)
• C. Rs. 32,000
• D. Rs. 36,000

Explanation: Combined multiplier = 1.2 x 1.25 = 1.5. Original salary = 45000/1.5 = 30000.

7. The price of rice decreases by 20%. A family increases its consumption by 25%. What is the net change in expenditure?

• A. No change (Correct)
• B. 4% increase
• C. 5% decrease
• D. 10% increase

Explanation: Expense multiplier = 0.80 x 1.25 = 1, so expenditure is unchanged.

8. A 40 L solution contains 30% acid. How much water should be added to make acid concentration 24%?

• A. 8 L
• B. 10 L (Correct)
• C. 12 L
• D. 15 L

Explanation: Acid = 12 L. For 24% concentration, total solution = 12/0.24 = 50 L. Water added = 10 L.

9. In an election, 8% votes were invalid. A winner got 55% of the valid votes and won by 4,600 votes. If there were only two candidates, total votes polled were:

• A. 40,000
• B. 45,000
• C. 50,000 (Correct)
• D. 55,000

Explanation: Winner's lead = 10% of valid votes = 4600, so valid votes = 46000. Since valid votes are 92% of total, total = 46000/0.92 = 50000.

10. A number is decreased by 10% and then by 20%. What is the final value if the original number is 500?

• A. 350
• B. 360 (Correct)
• C. 370
• D. 380

Explanation: Final = 500 x 0.9 x 0.8 = 360.

11. A is 25% less than B. B is what percent more than A?

• A. 25%
• B. 30%
• C. 33.33% (Correct)
• D. 40%

Explanation: Let B = 100, A = 75. B is more than A by 25/75 x 100 = 33.33%.

12. In a school, 45% students are girls. If boys are 660, total students are:

• A. 1,100
• B. 1,200 (Correct)
• C. 1,300
• D. 1,400

Explanation: Boys are 55% of total. Total = 660 x 100/55 = 1200.

13. A value is first increased by x% and then decreased by x%. The final value is 96% of the original. Find x.

• A. 10
• B. 15
• C. 20 (Correct)
• D. 25

Explanation: Net factor = 1 - x^2/10000 = 0.96. Hence x^2/100 = 4, so x = 20.

14. A person spends 35% of income on rent, 25% of the remaining on food and saves Rs. 19,500. Find income.

• A. Rs. 36,000
• B. Rs. 38,000
• C. Rs. 40,000 (Correct)
• D. Rs. 42,000

Explanation: After rent, 65% remains. After food, 75% of 65% = 48.75% remains. Income = 19500/0.4875 = 40000.

15. In a test, correct answers give 2 marks and wrong answers deduct 0.5 mark. A candidate attempts 80 questions and scores 125 marks. How many answers were correct?

• A. 64
• B. 66 (Correct)
• C. 68
• D. 70

Explanation: Let correct answers be c. Wrong = 80-c. Score = 2c - 0.5(80-c) = 125. Thus 2.5c = 165, so c = 66.

16. 25% of 200 is:

• A. 25
• B. 40
• C. 50 (Correct)
• D. 60

Explanation: 25% = 1/4, so 1/4 of 200 is 50.

17. A number is increased by 20%. If it becomes 120, the original number was:

• A. 90
• B. 95
• C. 100 (Correct)
• D. 110

Explanation: 120% corresponds to 120, so 100% is 100.

18. A price is reduced from 500 to 450. The percentage decrease is:

• A. 5%
• B. 10% (Correct)
• C. 12%
• D. 15%

Explanation: Decrease = 50, so percentage decrease = 50/500 × 100 = 10%.

19. A number is increased by 10% and then by 20%. The net increase is:

• A. 28%
• B. 30%
• C. 32% (Correct)
• D. 35%

Explanation: Take 100 → 110 → 132, so net increase is 32%.

20. A student secures 180 marks out of 240. His percentage is:

• A. 70%
• B. 72%
• C. 75% (Correct)
• D. 80%

Explanation: 180/240 × 100 = 75%.

21. Pointing to Rohan, Meena said, 'He is the son of my father's only son.' How is Rohan related to Meena?

• A. Brother
• B. Son
• C. Nephew (Correct)
• D. Cousin

Explanation: Meena's father's only son is Meena's brother. The son of her brother is Meena's nephew.

22. A is B's sister. C is B's father. D is C's mother. How is D related to A?

• A. Mother
• B. Grandmother (Correct)
• C. Aunt
• D. Sister

Explanation: A and B are siblings. C is their father, and D is C's mother, so D is A's grandmother.

23. A father's brother is called:

• A. Nephew
• B. Uncle (Correct)
• C. Cousin
• D. Grandfather

Explanation: Father's brother is paternal uncle.

24. If P + Q means P is Q's mother and P - Q means P is Q's brother, then A + B - C means A is C's:

• A. Mother (Correct)
• B. Aunt
• C. Grandmother
• D. Sister

Explanation: A is mother of B, and B is brother of C, so A is also C's mother.

25. X is the daughter of Y. Y is the wife of Z. How is Z related to X?

• A. Father (Correct)
• B. Brother
• C. Uncle
• D. Grandfather

Explanation: Y is X's mother and wife of Z, so Z is X's father.

26. A woman said, 'My mother's only son is this boy's father.' How is the woman related to the boy?

• A. Mother
• B. Aunt (Correct)
• C. Sister
• D. Grandmother

Explanation: The woman's mother's only son is her brother; that brother is the boy's father, so she is the boy's aunt.

27. P is Q's father. R is P's daughter. S is R's son. How is S related to Q?

• A. Brother
• B. Nephew (Correct)
• C. Son
• D. Uncle

Explanation: R is Q's sister, and S is R's son, so S is Q's nephew.

28. If A * B means A is B's father and A # B means A is B's sister, then M * N # O means M is O's:

• A. Father (Correct)
• B. Brother
• C. Uncle
• D. Grandfather

Explanation: M is father of N, and N is sister of O. Therefore M is O's father.

29. A mother's brother is called:

• A. Paternal uncle
• B. Maternal uncle (Correct)
• C. Nephew
• D. Grandson

Explanation: Mother's brother is maternal uncle.

30. Rita is the sister of Amit. Amit is the son of Kavita. How is Kavita related to Rita?

• A. Mother (Correct)
• B. Aunt
• C. Sister
• D. Grandmother

Explanation: Amit and Rita are siblings, so Amit's mother Kavita is Rita's mother too.

31. Pointing to a girl, Arun said, 'She is the daughter of my only sister.' How is the girl related to Arun?

• A. Daughter
• B. Niece (Correct)
• C. Sister
• D. Cousin

Explanation: The daughter of Arun's sister is Arun's niece.

32. If A @ B means A is B's wife and A # B means A is B's son, then P # Q @ R means P is R's:

• A. Son (Correct)
• B. Brother
• C. Father
• D. Uncle

Explanation: Q is wife of R, and P is son of Q. Therefore P is R's son.

33. A man's mother is the only daughter of a woman's father. How is the woman related to the man?

• A. Mother (Correct)
• B. Aunt
• C. Sister
• D. Grandmother

Explanation: The only daughter of the woman's father is the woman herself, so she is the man's mother.

34. N is the brother of M. M is the daughter of K. How is N related to K?

• A. Son (Correct)
• B. Brother
• C. Father
• D. Nephew

Explanation: M and N are siblings. Since M is K's daughter, N is K's son.

35. A brother's son is called:

• A. Nephew (Correct)
• B. Uncle
• C. Cousin
• D. Grandson

Explanation: Brother's son is nephew.

36. Statements: All pens are tools. Some tools are sharp. Conclusion: Some pens are sharp.

• A. Follows
• B. Does not follow (Correct)
• C. Either follows
• D. Both follow

Explanation: The sharp tools need not include any pen.

37. Statements: All books are papers. All papers are materials. Conclusion: All books are materials.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. Cannot say
• D. None

Explanation: The chain relation gives all books as materials.

38. Statements: No cup is plate. Some plates are bowls. Conclusion: Some bowls are not cups.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. May follow
• D. Either

Explanation: The bowls that are plates cannot be cups.

39. Statements: Some actors are singers. All singers are artists. Conclusion: Some actors are artists.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. Only possible
• D. None

Explanation: Those actors who are singers are definitely artists.

40. Statements: All windows are doors. No door is wall. Conclusion: No window is wall.

• A. Follows (Correct)
• B. Does not follow
• C. Cannot say
• D. Either

Explanation: Windows are included in doors, and no door is wall.

41. Choose the correct article: She adopted _____ honest approach.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Honest begins with a vowel sound, so 'an' is used.

42. He is good _____ mathematics.

• A. in
• B. at (Correct)
• C. for
• D. with

Explanation: The correct collocation is 'good at mathematics'.

43. Either the principal or the teachers _____ attending the meeting.

• A. is
• B. was
• C. are (Correct)
• D. has

Explanation: With 'either...or', the verb agrees with the nearer subject, which is 'teachers'.

44. By next month, she _____ the project.

• A. completes
• B. completed
• C. will complete
• D. will have completed (Correct)

Explanation: The future perfect is used for an action completed before a future point.

45. He said, 'I can solve this problem.' The indirect form is:

• A. He said that he can solve that problem.
• B. He said that he could solve that problem. (Correct)
• C. He said he solve that problem.
• D. He says that he could solve this problem.

Explanation: In indirect speech, 'can' changes to 'could' after a past reporting verb.

46. Choose the passive form: The committee will announce the result tomorrow.

• A. The result will announce tomorrow.
• B. The result will be announced tomorrow. (Correct)
• C. Tomorrow the result announced.
• D. The result is announced tomorrow.

Explanation: Future passive takes 'will be' plus past participle.

47. Identify the error: Each of the boys have submitted the form.

• A. Each
• B. of the boys
• C. have submitted (Correct)
• D. the form

Explanation: 'Each' takes a singular verb, so 'has submitted' is correct.

48. He was tired, _____ he continued working.

• A. because
• B. but (Correct)
• C. unless
• D. since

Explanation: The sentence shows contrast, so 'but' is appropriate.

49. Choose the best replacement: She is senior than me.

• A. senior from me
• B. senior to me (Correct)
• C. senior over me
• D. no improvement

Explanation: The adjective 'senior' takes 'to', not 'than'.

50. You _____ obey the traffic rules.

• A. should (Correct)
• B. might be
• C. used
• D. dare to

Explanation: 'Should' best expresses advice or obligation here.

51. Let's go for a walk, _____?

• A. shall we (Correct)
• B. will we
• C. don't we
• D. do we

Explanation: The standard tag after 'Let's' is 'shall we?'.

52. If he had studied harder, he _____ the exam.

• A. passes
• B. will pass
• C. would have passed (Correct)
• D. would pass

Explanation: This is a third conditional structure.

53. She enjoys _____ classical music.

• A. to listen
• B. listened
• C. listening to (Correct)
• D. listen

Explanation: 'Enjoy' is followed by a gerund.

54. Neither of the two sisters brought _____ notebook.

• A. their
• B. her (Correct)
• C. our
• D. his

Explanation: 'Neither' is singular, so the singular pronoun 'her' is used.

55. He completed the task _____ than expected.

• A. more quick
• B. quick
• C. more quickly (Correct)
• D. quicklier

Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify 'completed'.

56. He wants to become _____ engineer.

• A. a
• B. an (Correct)
• C. the
• D. no article

Explanation: Engineer begins with a vowel sound.

57. The train arrived _____ time.

• A. in
• B. on (Correct)
• C. at
• D. for

Explanation: The expression is 'on time'.

58. The quality of the apples _____ not good.

• A. are
• B. were
• C. is (Correct)
• D. have

Explanation: The subject is 'quality', which is singular.

59. When I reached the station, the train _____.

• A. left
• B. has left
• C. had left (Correct)
• D. was leaving always

Explanation: Past perfect shows the earlier past action.

60. She said, 'I have finished my work.' The indirect form is:

• A. She said that she had finished her work. (Correct)
• B. She said that she has finished her work.
• C. She says that she had finished her work.
• D. She told that she had finished my work.

Explanation: Present perfect changes to past perfect in reported speech after a past reporting verb.

61. Choose the active form: The match was won by the visitors.

• A. The visitors have won the match.
• B. The visitors won the match. (Correct)
• C. The match won the visitors.
• D. The visitors were winning the match.

Explanation: Simple past passive converts to simple past active.

62. Identify the error: One of my friends are preparing for SSC CGL.

• A. One
• B. of my friends
• C. are preparing (Correct)
• D. for SSC CGL

Explanation: 'One' is singular, so 'is preparing' is correct.

63. You will succeed _____ you stay focused.

• A. unless
• B. if (Correct)
• C. though
• D. whereas

Explanation: 'If' correctly introduces the condition.

64. Choose the best replacement: He insisted to pay the bill.

• A. insisted on paying (Correct)
• B. insisted for paying
• C. insisted paying to
• D. no improvement

Explanation: The correct construction is 'insist on' followed by a gerund.

65. Choose the correctly written sentence.

• A. Walking down the road, the trees looked beautiful.
• B. Walking down the road, I found the trees beautiful. (Correct)
• C. Walking down the road, the flowers was blooming.
• D. Walking down the road, the weather pleased.

Explanation: The doer in the opening phrase must match the subject that follows.

66. Who founded the Maurya Empire?

• A. Ashoka
• B. Chandragupta Maurya (Correct)
• C. Harsha
• D. Bindusara

Explanation: Chandragupta Maurya founded the Maurya Empire.

67. The Battle of Plassey was fought in:

• A. 1757 (Correct)
• B. 1761
• C. 1857
• D. 1526

Explanation: The Battle of Plassey took place in 1757.

68. Bharatanatyam is mainly associated with:

• A. Odisha
• B. Tamil Nadu (Correct)
• C. Kerala
• D. Punjab

Explanation: Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu.

69. The Sun Temple is located at:

• A. Konark (Correct)
• B. Khajuraho
• C. Hampi
• D. Madurai

Explanation: The famous Sun Temple is at Konark in Odisha.

70. Who gave the slogan 'Do or Die'?

• A. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• B. Mahatma Gandhi (Correct)
• C. Bhagat Singh
• D. Subhas Chandra Bose

Explanation: The slogan was given during the Quit India Movement.

71. Kathak is a classical dance form of:

• A. North India (Correct)
• B. South India
• C. North-East India
• D. Western India

Explanation: Kathak evolved in North India.

72. Who was known as the Iron Man of India?

• A. Jawaharlal Nehru
• B. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel (Correct)
• C. Lal Bahadur Shastri
• D. Rajendra Prasad

Explanation: Sardar Patel is called the Iron Man of India.

73. 'Wings of Fire' is associated with:

• A. A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (Correct)
• B. Vikram Sarabhai
• C. M. Visvesvaraya
• D. Homi Bhabha

Explanation: Wings of Fire is the autobiography of A. P. J. Abdul Kalam.

74. The Taj Mahal was built by:

• A. Akbar
• B. Shah Jahan (Correct)
• C. Humayun
• D. Babur

Explanation: Shah Jahan built the Taj Mahal.

75. The Quit India Movement started in:

• A. 1940
• B. 1942 (Correct)
• C. 1944
• D. 1946

Explanation: The movement was launched in August 1942.

76. Odissi dance is associated with:

• A. Odisha (Correct)
• B. Assam
• C. Bihar
• D. Gujarat

Explanation: Odissi is the classical dance form of Odisha.

77. Who was the first Governor-General of independent India?

• A. Lord Mountbatten (Correct)
• B. C. Rajagopalachari
• C. Warren Hastings
• D. Jawaharlal Nehru

Explanation: Mountbatten served as the first Governor-General after independence.

78. Hampi is located in:

• A. Kerala
• B. Tamil Nadu
• C. Karnataka (Correct)
• D. Maharashtra

Explanation: Hampi is a historic site in Karnataka.

79. Who founded the Mughal Empire in India?

• A. Akbar
• B. Humayun
• C. Babur (Correct)
• D. Sher Shah

Explanation: Babur founded the Mughal Empire after the First Battle of Panipat.

80. The Dandi March is linked with:

• A. Swadeshi Movement
• B. Salt Satyagraha (Correct)
• C. Quit India Movement
• D. Champaran Movement

Explanation: The Dandi March was part of the Salt Satyagraha in 1930.

81. 'Anandamath' was written by:

• A. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (Correct)
• B. Rabindranath Tagore
• C. Premchand
• D. Sarat Chandra

Explanation: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay wrote Anandamath.

82. Qutub Minar is located in:

• A. Agra
• B. Delhi (Correct)
• C. Lucknow
• D. Jaipur

Explanation: Qutub Minar is in Delhi.

83. Who was the founder of the Gupta Empire?

• A. Samudragupta
• B. Chandragupta I (Correct)
• C. Skandagupta
• D. Harsha

Explanation: Chandragupta I laid the foundation of the Gupta Empire.

84. Bihu is mainly celebrated in:

• A. Assam (Correct)
• B. Tripura
• C. Nagaland
• D. Sikkim

Explanation: Bihu is the major festival of Assam.

85. Who is known as the Nightingale of India?

• A. Sarojini Naidu (Correct)
• B. Indira Gandhi
• C. Annie Besant
• D. Aruna Asaf Ali

Explanation: Sarojini Naidu is called the Nightingale of India.

86. 'Vande Mataram' was written by:

• A. Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (Correct)
• B. Rabindranath Tagore
• C. Sarojini Naidu
• D. Subramania Bharati

Explanation: The song appears in Anandamath.

87. The Brihadeeswara Temple is located in:

• A. Madurai
• B. Thanjavur (Correct)
• C. Mysuru
• D. Puri

Explanation: The temple is a Chola architectural landmark in Thanjavur.

88. The Revolt of 1857 started from:

• A. Meerut (Correct)
• B. Delhi
• C. Kanpur
• D. Lucknow

Explanation: The revolt began at Meerut in May 1857.

89. Garba is a dance form associated with:

• A. Gujarat (Correct)
• B. Maharashtra
• C. Punjab
• D. Uttarakhand

Explanation: Garba is the popular folk dance of Gujarat.

90. Who was the first President of independent India?

• A. Rajendra Prasad (Correct)
• B. Nehru
• C. Radhakrishnan
• D. Zakir Husain

Explanation: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the first President of India.