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SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 2

Second current-pattern 90-question SSC MTS mock with two locked 45-minute sessions, session-specific scoring and explanations.

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SSC MTS 2026

SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 2

Second full-length SSC MTS 2026 CBT mock with a fresh question set across all 4 sections. Live countdown timer, negative marking, section-wise scoring and explanations.

Questions
90
Duration
45 min / section
Marking
+3; no penalty in I, -1 in II (Max 270)
Sections
Session I: 40 | Session II: 50

Question Palette Legend

1Not Visited1Not Answered1Answered1Marked for Review1Answered + Marked
Preview all 90 questions in SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 2 (no login required)
  1. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Reverse Percentage

    1. After a 25% increase, a salary becomes 25,000. Original salary was:

    • A. 18,000
    • B. 19,000
    • C. 20,000 (Correct)
    • D. 21,000

    Explanation: 125% = 25,000, so 100% = 20,000.

  2. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Population

    2. If a town population increases from 80,000 to 88,000, the increase percent is:

    • A. 8%
    • B. 10% (Correct)
    • C. 12%
    • D. 15%

    Explanation: Increase = 8,000, so 8,000/80,000 × 100 = 10%.

  3. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Expenditure

    3. Income increases by 20% and expenditure by 10%. If savings become 35% more, the original expenditure was what percent of income?

    • A. 50%
    • B. 60% (Correct)
    • C. 70%
    • D. 80%

    Explanation: Let income = 100 and expenditure = x. Savings = 100 - x. New savings = 120 - 1.1x = 1.35(100 - x). Solving: 120 - 1.1x = 135 - 1.35x, so 0.25x = 15, giving x = 60.

  4. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Comparison

    4. If A is 25% more than B, then B is less than A by:

    • A. 20% (Correct)
    • B. 25%
    • C. 30%
    • D. 33.33%

    Explanation: If B = 100, A = 125. So B is 25 less than 125, i.e. 20% less than A.

  5. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Percentage Fraction

    5. 12.5% is equal to:

    • A. 1/2
    • B. 1/4
    • C. 1/8 (Correct)
    • D. 1/16

    Explanation: 12.5% = 12.5/100 = 1/8.

  6. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Increase-Decrease

    6. A number is first increased by 25% and then decreased by 20%. The net effect is:

    • A. 0% (Correct)
    • B. 5% increase
    • C. 5% decrease
    • D. 10% decrease

    Explanation: 100 → 125 → 100, so net effect is zero.

  7. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Profit Percentage Link

    7. If the cost price is 400 and profit is 80, profit percent is:

    • A. 10%
    • B. 15%
    • C. 20% (Correct)
    • D. 25%

    Explanation: 80/400 × 100 = 20%.

  8. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Pass Percentage

    8. In an exam, a student gets 36% and fails by 8 marks, while another gets 44% and passes by 8 marks. Maximum marks are:

    • A. 150
    • B. 160
    • C. 175
    • D. 200 (Correct)

    Explanation: Difference in percentage = 8%, difference in marks = 16. So 100% = 16/8 × 100 = 200.

  9. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Successive Percentage Change

    9. A value is decreased by 20% and then by 10%. Net decrease is:

    • A. 28% (Correct)
    • B. 30%
    • C. 32%
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: 100 → 80 → 72, so net decrease is 28%.

  10. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Base Change

    10. If x is 40% of y, then y is what percent of x?

    • A. 150%
    • B. 200%
    • C. 250% (Correct)
    • D. 300%

    Explanation: If x = 40 and y = 100, then y/x × 100 = 250%.

  11. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Basic Percentage

    11. 40% of 250 is:

    • A. 80
    • B. 90
    • C. 100 (Correct)
    • D. 110

    Explanation: 40% of 250 = 100.

  12. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Increase

    12. A quantity increases from 80 to 100. The percentage increase is:

    • A. 20%
    • B. 25% (Correct)
    • C. 30%
    • D. 40%

    Explanation: Increase = 20 on base 80, so 20/80 x 100 = 25%.

  13. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Decrease

    13. A price falls from 500 to 450. The percentage decrease is:

    • A. 5%
    • B. 10% (Correct)
    • C. 12%
    • D. 15%

    Explanation: Decrease = 50 on base 500, so 10%.

  14. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Marks

    14. A student scores 180 out of 240. The percentage is:

    • A. 70%
    • B. 75% (Correct)
    • C. 80%
    • D. 85%

    Explanation: 180/240 x 100 = 75%.

  15. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Population

    15. Population rises by 10% from 2000. New population is:

    • A. 2100
    • B. 2200 (Correct)
    • C. 2300
    • D. 2400

    Explanation: 10% of 2000 is 200, so new population = 2200.

  16. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Expenditure

    16. If a man spends 60% of his income, he saves:

    • A. 20%
    • B. 30%
    • C. 35%
    • D. 40% (Correct)

    Explanation: Savings percentage = 100% - 60% = 40%.

  17. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Successive Change

    17. A number is increased by 20% and then decreased by 20%. Net change is:

    • A. No change
    • B. 4% decrease (Correct)
    • C. 4% increase
    • D. 8% decrease

    Explanation: 1.2 x 0.8 = 0.96, so net 4% decrease.

  18. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Comparison

    18. If A is 25% more than B, then B is what percent less than A?

    • A. 20% (Correct)
    • B. 25%
    • C. 30%
    • D. 33 1/3%

    Explanation: If A = 125 and B = 100, B is 25 less than 125, i.e. 20%.

  19. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Basic Percentage

    19. 5% of 640 is:

    • A. 16
    • B. 24
    • C. 32 (Correct)
    • D. 40

    Explanation: 10% of 640 is 64, so 5% is 32.

  20. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Expenditure

    20. Income is 5000 and expenditure is 3500. Savings percent on income is:

    • A. 20%
    • B. 25%
    • C. 30% (Correct)
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: Savings = 1500, so 1500/5000 x 100 = 30%.

  21. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    21. Statements: Some cars are buses. Some buses are trucks. Conclusion: Some cars are trucks.

    • A. Follows
    • B. Does not follow (Correct)
    • C. Both follow
    • D. None

    Explanation: The overlap with buses may be different.

  22. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    22. Statements: Only a few files are folders. All folders are records. Conclusion: Some files are records.

    • A. Follows (Correct)
    • B. Does not follow
    • C. Cannot say
    • D. Either

    Explanation: The folders that are files are also records.

  23. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    23. Statements: All roses are flowers. Conclusion: Some flowers are roses.

    • A. Follows (Correct)
    • B. Does not follow
    • C. Cannot say
    • D. None

    Explanation: If roses exist and all are flowers, some flowers are roses.

  24. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    24. Statements: No stone is wood. All wood are blocks. Conclusion: No block is stone.

    • A. Follows
    • B. Does not follow (Correct)
    • C. May follow
    • D. Either

    Explanation: Only wooden blocks are known not to be stones; all blocks are not covered.

  25. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    25. Statements: All planets are bodies. Some bodies are bright. Conclusions: I. Some planets are bright. II. Some bodies are planets.

    • A. Only I follows
    • B. Only II follows (Correct)
    • C. Both follow
    • D. Neither follows

    Explanation: All planets are bodies, so some bodies are planets. Brightness is not definite for planets.

  26. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    26. Statements: Some lamps are bulbs. No bulb is a tube. Conclusion: Some lamps are not tubes.

    • A. Follows (Correct)
    • B. Does not follow
    • C. Cannot say
    • D. Either

    Explanation: The lamps that are bulbs cannot be tubes.

  27. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    27. Statements: All keys are locks. Some locks are doors. Conclusions: I. Some keys are doors. II. Some locks are keys.

    • A. Only I follows
    • B. Only II follows (Correct)
    • C. Both follow
    • D. Neither follows

    Explanation: All keys are locks, so some locks are keys. No definite link exists between keys and doors.

  28. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    28. Statements: No paper is cloth. All cloth are sheets. Conclusion: Some sheets are not papers.

    • A. Follows (Correct)
    • B. Does not follow
    • C. May follow
    • D. Either

    Explanation: All cloth are sheets, and no cloth is paper, so those sheets are not papers.

  29. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    29. Statements: All apples are fruits. Some fruits are sweet. Conclusion: All apples are sweet.

    • A. Follows
    • B. Does not follow (Correct)
    • C. Cannot say
    • D. Both

    Explanation: Only some fruits are sweet; apples are not definitely included in that part.

  30. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Syllogism

    30. Statements: Only chairs are tables. Some chairs are wooden. Conclusion: Some tables are wooden.

    • A. Follows
    • B. Does not follow (Correct)
    • C. Cannot say
    • D. Either

    Explanation: Only chairs are tables means every table is a chair, but wooden chairs need not be tables.

  31. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    31. Five people A, B, C, D and E sit in a row facing north. B is immediately left of C. A is at the left end. D is immediately right of C. Who sits in the middle?

    • A. B
    • B. C (Correct)
    • C. D
    • D. E

    Explanation: The order starts A, then B-C-D consecutively; C is in the middle position.

  32. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    32. P, Q, R, S sit in a row. Q is not at an end. P is left of Q. R is right of S. If S is at the left end, who is second from left?

    • A. P (Correct)
    • B. Q
    • C. R
    • D. S

    Explanation: S is first. Since R is right of S and P is left of Q, the possible order is S-P-Q-R.

  33. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Circular Seating

    33. Four friends sit around a circular table facing centre. A is opposite C and B is to the immediate right of A. Who is opposite B?

    • A. A
    • B. C
    • C. D (Correct)
    • D. Cannot be determined

    Explanation: With A opposite C, B on A's right leaves D opposite B.

  34. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    34. Six people sit in a row. M is third from the left and N is second from the right. How many people sit between M and N?

    • A. 0
    • B. 1 (Correct)
    • C. 2
    • D. 3

    Explanation: In six places, M is position 3 and N is position 5, so one person sits between them.

  35. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    35. A, B, C, D, E sit in a row. C is exactly between A and E. A is second from the left and E is fourth from the left. Where is C?

    • A. First
    • B. Second
    • C. Third (Correct)
    • D. Fifth

    Explanation: C is exactly between positions 2 and 4, so C is at position 3.

  36. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Circular Seating

    36. In a circle facing centre, X sits immediately left of Y. Z sits opposite Y. Who is immediately right of X if four people sit?

    • A. Y
    • B. Z
    • C. W (Correct)
    • D. Cannot be determined

    Explanation: With four people, if X is left of Y, the remaining adjacent on X's other side is W.

  37. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    37. Seven students sit in a row. R is fourth from the left. What is R's position from the right?

    • A. 3rd
    • B. 4th (Correct)
    • C. 5th
    • D. 6th

    Explanation: Position from right = 7 - 4 + 1 = 4.

  38. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    38. A is to the immediate left of B. C is to the immediate right of B. Which person is between A and C?

    • A. A
    • B. B (Correct)
    • C. C
    • D. None

    Explanation: The order is A-B-C.

  39. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Floor Arrangement

    39. P lives above Q but below R in a three-floor building. Who lives on the top floor?

    • A. P
    • B. Q
    • C. R (Correct)
    • D. Cannot be determined

    Explanation: The order from bottom to top is Q, P, R.

  40. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    40. Five people sit in a row facing north. A is left of B but right of C. D is at the right end. E is at the left end. Who sits in the middle?

    • A. A (Correct)
    • B. B
    • C. C
    • D. D

    Explanation: E is first and D is fifth. Since C-A-B must be in order, A occupies the middle seat.

  41. Session II — General Awareness and English — Question Tag

    41. She is your cousin, _____?

    • A. isn't she (Correct)
    • B. doesn't she
    • C. wasn't she
    • D. is she

    Explanation: The auxiliary 'is' becomes negative in the tag.

  42. Session II — General Awareness and English — Conditional

    42. If I were the manager, I _____ the policy.

    • A. change
    • B. changed
    • C. would change (Correct)
    • D. will change

    Explanation: This is a second conditional sentence.

  43. Session II — General Awareness and English — Verb Form

    43. He made me _____ the letter twice.

    • A. to read
    • B. reading
    • C. read (Correct)
    • D. reads

    Explanation: 'Make' is followed by the base verb in active voice.

  44. Session II — General Awareness and English — Pronoun

    44. Everyone should finish _____ assignment before lunch.

    • A. their
    • B. his or her (Correct)
    • C. our
    • D. its

    Explanation: Formal singular agreement with 'everyone' takes 'his or her'.

  45. Session II — General Awareness and English — Adjective

    45. Mount Everest is _____ peak in the world.

    • A. high
    • B. higher
    • C. the highest (Correct)
    • D. most high

    Explanation: A superlative is required.

  46. Session II — General Awareness and English — Articles

    46. She waited for _____ hour before boarding.

    • A. a
    • B. an (Correct)
    • C. the
    • D. no article

    Explanation: Hour begins with a vowel sound.

  47. Session II — General Awareness and English — Preposition

    47. The child was angry _____ his friend.

    • A. with (Correct)
    • B. to
    • C. for
    • D. at

    Explanation: The usual expression is 'angry with someone'.

  48. Session II — General Awareness and English — Agreement

    48. The list of candidates _____ been displayed.

    • A. have
    • B. has (Correct)
    • C. were
    • D. are

    Explanation: The subject 'list' is singular.

  49. Session II — General Awareness and English — Tense

    49. By the time we arrived, the movie _____.

    • A. starts
    • B. had started (Correct)
    • C. has started
    • D. will start

    Explanation: Past perfect shows the earlier of two past actions.

  50. Session II — General Awareness and English — Voice

    50. Choose the passive form: Someone has stolen my bag.

    • A. My bag has stolen.
    • B. My bag has been stolen. (Correct)
    • C. My bag was stealing.
    • D. My bag had stolen.

    Explanation: Present perfect passive uses has/have been plus past participle.

  51. Session II — General Awareness and English — Error Spotting

    51. Identify the error: Neither of the answers are correct.

    • A. Neither
    • B. of the answers
    • C. are correct (Correct)
    • D. no error

    Explanation: 'Neither' is singular, so 'is correct' is required.

  52. Session II — General Awareness and English — Conjunction

    52. He stayed at home _____ it was raining.

    • A. because (Correct)
    • B. although
    • C. unless
    • D. until

    Explanation: The reason is introduced by 'because'.

  53. Session II — General Awareness and English — Sentence Improvement

    53. Choose the best replacement: She prefers tea than coffee.

    • A. prefers tea to coffee (Correct)
    • B. prefers tea over coffee than
    • C. prefers tea more than coffee
    • D. no improvement

    Explanation: The correct pattern is 'prefer A to B'.

  54. Session II — General Awareness and English — Question Tag

    54. You can solve this, _____?

    • A. can you
    • B. can't you (Correct)
    • C. don't you
    • D. won't you

    Explanation: Positive statement takes a negative tag with the same auxiliary.

  55. Session II — General Awareness and English — Conditional

    55. If she studies regularly, she _____ the exam.

    • A. passes
    • B. will pass (Correct)
    • C. would pass
    • D. had passed

    Explanation: A first conditional uses present in the if-clause and future in the main clause.

  56. Session II — General Awareness and English — Verb Form

    56. I look forward to _____ from you.

    • A. hear
    • B. heard
    • C. hearing (Correct)
    • D. have heard

    Explanation: 'Look forward to' takes a gerund.

  57. Session II — General Awareness and English — Pronoun

    57. Every player must carry _____ own ID card.

    • A. their
    • B. his (Correct)
    • C. our
    • D. its

    Explanation: Traditional singular agreement takes 'his' here in exam grammar style.

  58. Session II — General Awareness and English — Adverb

    58. He spoke so _____ that everyone understood him.

    • A. clear
    • B. clearly (Correct)
    • C. more clear
    • D. clearest

    Explanation: An adverb is needed to modify 'spoke'.

  59. Session II — General Awareness and English — Tense

    59. By next Monday, she _____ the report.

    • A. completes
    • B. completed
    • C. will have completed (Correct)
    • D. has completed

    Explanation: Future perfect is used for an action completed before a future time.

  60. Session II — General Awareness and English — Agreement

    60. Each of the players _____ a separate locker.

    • A. have
    • B. has (Correct)
    • C. were given
    • D. are given

    Explanation: 'Each' is singular and takes a singular verb.

  61. Session II — General Awareness and English — Article

    61. He is _____ honest officer.

    • A. a
    • B. an (Correct)
    • C. the
    • D. no article

    Explanation: Honest begins with a vowel sound.

  62. Session II — General Awareness and English — Preposition

    62. She has been absent _____ Monday.

    • A. from
    • B. since (Correct)
    • C. for
    • D. by

    Explanation: 'Since' is used with a point of time.

  63. Session II — General Awareness and English — Voice

    63. Choose the passive form: They will announce the result tomorrow.

    • A. The result will announce tomorrow.
    • B. The result will be announced tomorrow. (Correct)
    • C. The result is announced tomorrow.
    • D. The result was announced tomorrow.

    Explanation: Future passive uses will be plus past participle.

  64. Session II — General Awareness and English — Narration

    64. He said, 'I have finished my task.' The indirect form is:

    • A. He said that he had finished his task. (Correct)
    • B. He said that I had finished my task.
    • C. He says that he has finished his task.
    • D. He said that he finished my task.

    Explanation: Present perfect changes to past perfect in reported speech after a past reporting verb.

  65. Session II — General Awareness and English — Error Spotting

    65. Identify the error: One of the boys have solved the puzzle.

    • A. One of
    • B. the boys
    • C. have solved (Correct)
    • D. the puzzle

    Explanation: 'One' is singular, so 'has solved' is correct.

  66. Session II — General Awareness and English — Monuments

    66. The Sanchi Stupa is located in:

    • A. Madhya Pradesh (Correct)
    • B. Bihar
    • C. Uttar Pradesh
    • D. Rajasthan

    Explanation: Sanchi is in Madhya Pradesh.

  67. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    67. The Civil Disobedience Movement was launched in:

    • A. 1920
    • B. 1930 (Correct)
    • C. 1942
    • D. 1919

    Explanation: It was launched by Gandhi in 1930.

  68. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    68. Who founded the Slave Dynasty in Delhi?

    • A. Iltutmish
    • B. Qutb-ud-din Aibak (Correct)
    • C. Balban
    • D. Alauddin Khalji

    Explanation: Qutb-ud-din Aibak founded the Slave Dynasty.

  69. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    69. The First Battle of Panipat was fought in:

    • A. 1526 (Correct)
    • B. 1556
    • C. 1761
    • D. 1757

    Explanation: The first Battle of Panipat took place in 1526.

  70. Session II — General Awareness and English — Culture

    70. Kuchipudi is mainly associated with:

    • A. Andhra Pradesh (Correct)
    • B. Odisha
    • C. Punjab
    • D. Gujarat

    Explanation: Kuchipudi originated in Andhra Pradesh.

  71. Session II — General Awareness and English — Books

    71. 'Gitanjali' is associated with:

    • A. Rabindranath Tagore (Correct)
    • B. Premchand
    • C. Nehru
    • D. Bankim Chandra

    Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore wrote Gitanjali.

  72. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    72. Who started the Home Rule Movement in India along with Annie Besant?

    • A. Lala Lajpat Rai
    • B. Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Correct)
    • C. Bipin Chandra Pal
    • D. Dadabhai Naoroji

    Explanation: Tilak and Annie Besant were central to the Home Rule Movement.

  73. Session II — General Awareness and English — Culture

    73. The classical dance Mohiniyattam belongs to:

    • A. Kerala (Correct)
    • B. Tamil Nadu
    • C. Odisha
    • D. Assam

    Explanation: Mohiniyattam is the classical dance form of Kerala.

  74. Session II — General Awareness and English — Books

    74. 'My Experiments with Truth' is associated with:

    • A. Mahatma Gandhi (Correct)
    • B. Subhas Bose
    • C. Tagore
    • D. Rajendra Prasad

    Explanation: It is Gandhi's autobiography.

  75. Session II — General Awareness and English — Monuments

    75. The India Gate is located in:

    • A. Delhi (Correct)
    • B. Agra
    • C. Bhopal
    • D. Jaipur

    Explanation: India Gate is in New Delhi.

  76. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    76. The Simon Commission came to India in:

    • A. 1925
    • B. 1927
    • C. 1928 (Correct)
    • D. 1930

    Explanation: The Simon Commission reached India in 1928.

  77. Session II — General Awareness and English — Culture

    77. The festival Onam is celebrated mainly in:

    • A. Kerala (Correct)
    • B. Tamil Nadu
    • C. Karnataka
    • D. Assam

    Explanation: Onam is the major harvest festival of Kerala.

  78. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    78. Who was the first woman Governor of an Indian state?

    • A. Sarojini Naidu (Correct)
    • B. Indira Gandhi
    • C. Sucheta Kripalani
    • D. Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

    Explanation: Sarojini Naidu became the Governor of Uttar Pradesh.

  79. Session II — General Awareness and English — Monuments

    79. The Charminar is located in:

    • A. Hyderabad (Correct)
    • B. Lucknow
    • C. Mysuru
    • D. Aurangabad

    Explanation: Charminar is the famous landmark of Hyderabad.

  80. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    80. The Cripps Mission came to India in:

    • A. 1940
    • B. 1941
    • C. 1942 (Correct)
    • D. 1945

    Explanation: The Cripps Mission visited India in 1942.

  81. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    81. The Revolt of 1857 first broke out at:

    • A. Meerut (Correct)
    • B. Kanpur
    • C. Jhansi
    • D. Barrackpore

    Explanation: The uprising began at Meerut in May 1857.

  82. Session II — General Awareness and English — Culture

    82. Bharatanatyam is primarily associated with:

    • A. Kerala
    • B. Tamil Nadu (Correct)
    • C. Odisha
    • D. Assam

    Explanation: Bharatanatyam originated in Tamil Nadu.

  83. Session II — General Awareness and English — Monuments

    83. The Sun Temple of Konark is in:

    • A. Odisha (Correct)
    • B. Bihar
    • C. Madhya Pradesh
    • D. Rajasthan

    Explanation: Konark Sun Temple is located in Odisha.

  84. Session II — General Awareness and English — Culture

    84. Bihu is the major festival of:

    • A. Assam (Correct)
    • B. Tripura
    • C. Manipur
    • D. Nagaland

    Explanation: Bihu is the major festival of Assam.

  85. Session II — General Awareness and English — Monuments

    85. The Sanchi Stupa is in:

    • A. Madhya Pradesh (Correct)
    • B. Uttar Pradesh
    • C. Bihar
    • D. Gujarat

    Explanation: The Sanchi Stupa is located in Madhya Pradesh.

  86. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    86. Who presided over the Lahore Session of the Congress in 1929?

    • A. Mahatma Gandhi
    • B. Subhas Chandra Bose
    • C. Jawaharlal Nehru (Correct)
    • D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak

    Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru presided over the Lahore Session of 1929.

  87. Session II — General Awareness and English — Culture

    87. Kathakali belongs to:

    • A. Tamil Nadu
    • B. Kerala (Correct)
    • C. Karnataka
    • D. Andhra Pradesh

    Explanation: Kathakali is a classical dance-drama form of Kerala.

  88. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    88. Who gave the call 'Do or Die'?

    • A. Nehru
    • B. Gandhi (Correct)
    • C. Patel
    • D. Tilak

    Explanation: Mahatma Gandhi gave the call during the Quit India Movement.

  89. Session II — General Awareness and English — Monuments

    89. Buland Darwaza is located at:

    • A. Agra Fort
    • B. Fatehpur Sikri (Correct)
    • C. Red Fort
    • D. Golconda

    Explanation: Buland Darwaza is the grand gateway at Fatehpur Sikri.

  90. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    90. The Cabinet Mission came to India in:

    • A. 1942
    • B. 1944
    • C. 1946 (Correct)
    • D. 1947

    Explanation: The Cabinet Mission came to India in 1946.