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SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 3

Third current-pattern 90-question SSC MTS mock with two locked 45-minute sessions, session-specific scoring and detailed review.

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SSC MTS 2026

SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 3

Third full-length SSC MTS 2026 CBT mock — challenge round with a distinct question set. Live timer, negative marking, detailed explanations and section-wise performance breakdown.

Questions
90
Duration
45 min / section
Marking
+3; no penalty in I, -1 in II (Max 270)
Sections
Session I: 40 | Session II: 50

Question Palette Legend

1Not Visited1Not Answered1Answered1Marked for Review1Answered + Marked
Preview all 90 questions in SSC MTS 2026 Full Mock Test 3 (no login required)
  1. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Reverse Percentage

    1. If a number after increasing by 25% becomes 150, the original number was:

    • A. 100
    • B. 110
    • C. 120 (Correct)
    • D. 125

    Explanation: Original x 1.25 = 150, so original = 150/1.25 = 120.

  2. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Mixture

    2. Water in a solution is 30%. In 200 litres solution, water is:

    • A. 40 litres
    • B. 50 litres
    • C. 60 litres (Correct)
    • D. 70 litres

    Explanation: 30% of 200 = 60 litres.

  3. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Increase

    3. Salary rises from 20000 to 23000. Increase percent is:

    • A. 10%
    • B. 12%
    • C. 15% (Correct)
    • D. 18%

    Explanation: Increase = 3000 on base 20000, so 15%.

  4. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Decrease

    4. A number decreases from 150 to 120. Percentage decrease is:

    • A. 15%
    • B. 20% (Correct)
    • C. 25%
    • D. 30%

    Explanation: Decrease = 30 on base 150, so 20%.

  5. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Marks

    5. A candidate needs 35% to pass. Out of 400 marks, he gets 126. He fails by:

    • A. 10
    • B. 12
    • C. 14 (Correct)
    • D. 16

    Explanation: Passing marks = 35% of 400 = 140, so shortfall = 14.

  6. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Basic Percentage

    6. 30% of 500 is:

    • A. 120
    • B. 130
    • C. 140
    • D. 150 (Correct)

    Explanation: 30% of 500 = 150.

  7. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Increase

    7. A value rises from 200 to 260. Percentage increase is:

    • A. 20%
    • B. 25%
    • C. 30% (Correct)
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: Increase = 60 on base 200, so 30%.

  8. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Decrease

    8. A price falls from 800 to 720. Percentage decrease is:

    • A. 8%
    • B. 10% (Correct)
    • C. 12%
    • D. 15%

    Explanation: Decrease = 80 on base 800, so 10%.

  9. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Marks

    9. A candidate scores 225 out of 300. Percentage is:

    • A. 70%
    • B. 72%
    • C. 75% (Correct)
    • D. 78%

    Explanation: 225/300 x 100 = 75%.

  10. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Population

    10. Population decreases by 5% from 4000. New population is:

    • A. 3600
    • B. 3700
    • C. 3800 (Correct)
    • D. 3900

    Explanation: 5% of 4000 is 200, so new population = 3800.

  11. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Savings

    11. If a person saves 25% of income, expenditure percent is:

    • A. 65%
    • B. 70%
    • C. 75% (Correct)
    • D. 80%

    Explanation: Expenditure = 100% - 25% = 75%.

  12. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Successive Change

    12. A number is increased by 10% and then by 20%. Net increase is:

    • A. 28%
    • B. 30%
    • C. 32% (Correct)
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: 1.1 x 1.2 = 1.32, so net increase = 32%.

  13. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Comparison

    13. If A is 20% less than B, then B is what percent more than A?

    • A. 20%
    • B. 25% (Correct)
    • C. 30%
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: If B = 100 and A = 80, then B is 20 more than 80, i.e. 25%.

  14. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Basic Percentage

    14. 12% of 250 is:

    • A. 25
    • B. 28
    • C. 30 (Correct)
    • D. 32

    Explanation: 12% of 250 = 30.

  15. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Expenditure

    15. Income is 8000 and expenditure is 6000. Savings percent on income is:

    • A. 20%
    • B. 25% (Correct)
    • C. 30%
    • D. 35%

    Explanation: Savings = 2000, so 2000/8000 x 100 = 25%.

  16. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Reverse Percentage

    16. A number after decreasing by 20% becomes 160. Original number was:

    • A. 180
    • B. 190
    • C. 200 (Correct)
    • D. 220

    Explanation: Original x 0.8 = 160, so original = 200.

  17. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Mixture

    17. Milk in a mixture is 40%. In 250 litres, milk is:

    • A. 80
    • B. 90
    • C. 100 (Correct)
    • D. 110

    Explanation: 40% of 250 = 100 litres.

  18. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Increase

    18. Salary rises from 15000 to 18000. Increase percent is:

    • A. 15%
    • B. 18%
    • C. 20% (Correct)
    • D. 25%

    Explanation: Increase = 3000 on base 15000, so 20%.

  19. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Decrease

    19. A number decreases from 250 to 200. Percentage decrease is:

    • A. 15%
    • B. 18%
    • C. 20% (Correct)
    • D. 25%

    Explanation: Decrease = 50 on base 250, so 20%.

  20. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Pass Percentage

    20. Passing marks are 40% of 500. A student scores 176. He fails by:

    • A. 12
    • B. 16
    • C. 20
    • D. 24 (Correct)

    Explanation: Passing marks = 200, so shortfall = 24.

  21. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    21. Six people sit in a row. A is immediately right of B. C is immediately left of B. Who is between A and C?

    • A. A
    • B. B (Correct)
    • C. C
    • D. Cannot be determined

    Explanation: The consecutive order is C-B-A, so B is between C and A.

  22. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Circular Seating

    22. Five people sit around a circular table facing centre. P is immediate left of Q and R is immediate right of Q. Who are Q's neighbours?

    • A. P and R (Correct)
    • B. P and S
    • C. R and T
    • D. S and T

    Explanation: The immediate left and immediate right of Q are P and R.

  23. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Floor Arrangement

    23. In a four-floor building, A lives above B, C lives below B, and D lives above A. Who lives on the top floor?

    • A. A
    • B. B
    • C. C
    • D. D (Correct)

    Explanation: The order from bottom to top is C, B, A, D.

  24. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    24. Nine persons sit in a row. T is fifth from the left. What is T's position from the right?

    • A. 4th
    • B. 5th (Correct)
    • C. 6th
    • D. 7th

    Explanation: Right position = 9 - 5 + 1 = 5.

  25. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Seating Arrangement

    25. A, B, C, D and E sit in a row facing north. D is second from the right. C is left of D but right of A. B is at the left end. Who sits third from the left?

    • A. A
    • B. C (Correct)
    • C. D
    • D. E

    Explanation: B is first and D is fourth. With A left of C and C right of A before D, C is third.

  26. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Calendar

    26. If 1 January is Monday, what day will 8 January be?

    • A. Monday (Correct)
    • B. Tuesday
    • C. Sunday
    • D. Wednesday

    Explanation: After 7 days, the same weekday repeats.

  27. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Calendar

    27. How many odd days are there in a normal year?

    • A. 0
    • B. 1 (Correct)
    • C. 2
    • D. 3

    Explanation: 365 days = 52 weeks + 1 odd day.

  28. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Calendar

    28. How many odd days are there in a leap year?

    • A. 1
    • B. 2 (Correct)
    • C. 3
    • D. 4

    Explanation: 366 days = 52 weeks + 2 odd days.

  29. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Clock

    29. Find the angle between hour and minute hands at 3:00.

    • A. 60°
    • B. 75°
    • C. 90° (Correct)
    • D. 120°

    Explanation: At 3:00, the hands are 3 hour marks apart. 3 x 30° = 90°.

  30. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Clock

    30. Find the angle between hands at 6:00.

    • A. 90°
    • B. 120°
    • C. 150°
    • D. 180° (Correct)

    Explanation: At 6:00, the hands are opposite.

  31. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Clock

    31. At 2:30, the angle between the hands is:

    • A. 95°
    • B. 100°
    • C. 105° (Correct)
    • D. 110°

    Explanation: Hour hand is at 75° and minute hand at 180°. Difference = 105°.

  32. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Calendar

    32. Which year is a leap year?

    • A. 1900
    • B. 2018
    • C. 2020 (Correct)
    • D. 2100

    Explanation: 2020 is divisible by 4 and not a century exception.

  33. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Calendar

    33. If today is Wednesday, what day will it be after 45 days?

    • A. Friday
    • B. Saturday (Correct)
    • C. Sunday
    • D. Monday

    Explanation: 45 leaves remainder 3 when divided by 7. Wednesday + 3 days = Saturday.

  34. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Clock

    34. How many times do the hands of a clock coincide in 12 hours?

    • A. 10
    • B. 11 (Correct)
    • C. 12
    • D. 13

    Explanation: The hands coincide 11 times in every 12-hour period.

  35. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Calendar

    35. If 5 March is Friday, what day will 12 March be?

    • A. Friday (Correct)
    • B. Saturday
    • C. Thursday
    • D. Sunday

    Explanation: 12 March is exactly 7 days later, so the day remains Friday.

  36. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Clock

    36. At 9:00, the angle between the clock hands is:

    • A. 60 deg
    • B. 90 deg (Correct)
    • C. 120 deg
    • D. 180 deg

    Explanation: At 9:00, the hands are three hour marks apart, so the angle is 90 degrees.

  37. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Calendar

    37. How many odd days are there in 400 years?

    • A. 0 (Correct)
    • B. 1
    • C. 2
    • D. 5

    Explanation: A 400-year Gregorian cycle has 0 odd days.

  38. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Clock

    38. At 4:20, the smaller angle between the clock hands is:

    • A. 5 deg
    • B. 10 deg (Correct)
    • C. 15 deg
    • D. 20 deg

    Explanation: Hour hand angle = 130 degrees and minute hand angle = 120 degrees, so the difference is 10 degrees.

  39. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Calendar

    39. If 1 April is Tuesday, what day will 15 April be?

    • A. Monday
    • B. Tuesday (Correct)
    • C. Wednesday
    • D. Thursday

    Explanation: 15 April is 14 days later, exactly two weeks, so the weekday remains Tuesday.

  40. Session I — Numerical Ability and Reasoning — Clock

    40. The minute hand covers how many degrees in 15 minutes?

    • A. 45 deg
    • B. 60 deg
    • C. 90 deg (Correct)
    • D. 120 deg

    Explanation: The minute hand moves 6 degrees per minute. In 15 minutes, it moves 90 degrees.

  41. Session II — General Awareness and English — Conditional

    41. If I had seen her, I _____ to her.

    • A. speak
    • B. would speak
    • C. would have spoken (Correct)
    • D. spoke

    Explanation: Third conditional uses 'would have' plus past participle.

  42. Session II — General Awareness and English — Sentence Improvement

    42. Choose the best replacement: He is senior than me.

    • A. senior to me (Correct)
    • B. senior from me
    • C. more senior than me
    • D. no improvement

    Explanation: 'Senior' is followed by 'to', not 'than'.

  43. Session II — General Awareness and English — Pronoun

    43. Neither Rani nor Meena brought _____ notebook.

    • A. her (Correct)
    • B. their
    • C. our
    • D. its

    Explanation: In traditional exam grammar, singular nouns joined by 'nor' take a singular pronoun.

  44. Session II — General Awareness and English — Conjunction

    44. He worked hard _____ he could succeed.

    • A. so that (Correct)
    • B. unless
    • C. although
    • D. because of

    Explanation: 'So that' expresses purpose.

  45. Session II — General Awareness and English — Gerund

    45. Swimming is good for health. The underlined word functions as a:

    • A. noun (Correct)
    • B. adjective
    • C. adverb
    • D. preposition

    Explanation: A gerund acts as a noun.

  46. Session II — General Awareness and English — Adjective

    46. This is the _____ building in the area.

    • A. taller
    • B. tall
    • C. tallest (Correct)
    • D. more tall

    Explanation: The superlative is needed for comparison among many.

  47. Session II — General Awareness and English — Verb Form

    47. I would rather _____ at home tonight.

    • A. stay (Correct)
    • B. stayed
    • C. staying
    • D. to stay

    Explanation: 'Would rather' is followed by the base form.

  48. Session II — General Awareness and English — Tense

    48. She _____ to Delhi last week.

    • A. go
    • B. goes
    • C. went (Correct)
    • D. gone

    Explanation: Past time marker requires simple past.

  49. Session II — General Awareness and English — Agreement

    49. Neither of the boys _____ ready.

    • A. are
    • B. were
    • C. is (Correct)
    • D. have

    Explanation: 'Neither' takes a singular verb.

  50. Session II — General Awareness and English — Article

    50. He bought _____ umbrella yesterday.

    • A. a
    • B. an (Correct)
    • C. the
    • D. no article

    Explanation: Umbrella begins with a vowel sound.

  51. Session II — General Awareness and English — Voice

    51. Choose the passive form: They are repairing the road.

    • A. The road is repaired.
    • B. The road is being repaired. (Correct)
    • C. The road was being repaired.
    • D. The road has repaired.

    Explanation: Present continuous passive uses is being + past participle.

  52. Session II — General Awareness and English — Error Spotting

    52. Identify the error: The news are surprising.

    • A. The
    • B. news
    • C. are surprising (Correct)
    • D. no error

    Explanation: 'News' is singular, so 'is surprising' is correct.

  53. Session II — General Awareness and English — Conditional

    53. If it rains, we _____ indoors.

    • A. stay
    • B. stayed
    • C. will stay (Correct)
    • D. would stay

    Explanation: First conditional uses future in the main clause.

  54. Session II — General Awareness and English — Sentence Improvement

    54. Choose the best replacement: He is good in maths.

    • A. good at maths (Correct)
    • B. good on maths
    • C. good for maths
    • D. no improvement

    Explanation: 'Good at' is the correct phrase.

  55. Session II — General Awareness and English — Pronoun

    55. Everyone should do _____ duty.

    • A. their
    • B. his (Correct)
    • C. our
    • D. its

    Explanation: Traditional exam grammar prefers singular 'his' here.

  56. Session II — General Awareness and English — Conjunction

    56. Work hard, _____ you will fail.

    • A. and
    • B. or (Correct)
    • C. but
    • D. so

    Explanation: 'Or' expresses warning in this pattern.

  57. Session II — General Awareness and English — Gerund

    57. He enjoys _____ books.

    • A. read
    • B. reading (Correct)
    • C. to read
    • D. reads

    Explanation: 'Enjoy' is followed by a gerund.

  58. Session II — General Awareness and English — Adjective

    58. This road is _____ than that one.

    • A. wide
    • B. wider (Correct)
    • C. widest
    • D. more widest

    Explanation: Comparative adjective is needed.

  59. Session II — General Awareness and English — Verb Form

    59. Had I known, I _____ helped you.

    • A. will
    • B. would have (Correct)
    • C. shall
    • D. am

    Explanation: Third conditional takes 'would have'.

  60. Session II — General Awareness and English — Question Tag

    60. She is absent today, _____?

    • A. is she
    • B. isn't she (Correct)
    • C. doesn't she
    • D. wasn't she

    Explanation: Positive statement takes negative tag.

  61. Session II — General Awareness and English — Articles

    61. Choose the correct article: It was _____ unique opportunity.

    • A. a (Correct)
    • B. an
    • C. the
    • D. no article

    Explanation: Unique begins with a consonant sound, so 'a' is correct.

  62. Session II — General Awareness and English — Preposition

    62. She is interested _____ classical music.

    • A. at
    • B. in (Correct)
    • C. on
    • D. for

    Explanation: The correct phrase is 'interested in'.

  63. Session II — General Awareness and English — Agreement

    63. Neither the manager nor the workers _____ ready.

    • A. is
    • B. was
    • C. are (Correct)
    • D. has

    Explanation: The verb agrees with the nearer subject, 'workers'.

  64. Session II — General Awareness and English — Tense

    64. By this time tomorrow, they _____ the journey.

    • A. finish
    • B. finished
    • C. will finish
    • D. will have finished (Correct)

    Explanation: Future perfect is used for completion before a future point.

  65. Session II — General Awareness and English — Voice

    65. Choose the passive form: The police arrested the thief.

    • A. The thief arrested by the police.
    • B. The thief was arrested by the police. (Correct)
    • C. The police was arrested by the thief.
    • D. The thief is arrested by the police.

    Explanation: Simple past passive uses was/were plus past participle.

  66. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    66. Who started the Ramakrishna Mission?

    • A. Swami Vivekananda (Correct)
    • B. Dayanand Saraswati
    • C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
    • D. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

    Explanation: Swami Vivekananda founded the Ramakrishna Mission.

  67. Session II — General Awareness and English — Culture

    67. Odissi dance belongs to:

    • A. Odisha (Correct)
    • B. Kerala
    • C. Tamil Nadu
    • D. Gujarat

    Explanation: Odissi is the classical dance of Odisha.

  68. Session II — General Awareness and English — Books

    68. 'India Wins Freedom' was written by:

    • A. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad (Correct)
    • B. Nehru
    • C. Gandhi
    • D. Rajaji

    Explanation: The book was written by Maulana Azad.

  69. Session II — General Awareness and English — Monuments

    69. The Red Fort is located in:

    • A. Agra
    • B. Delhi (Correct)
    • C. Jaipur
    • D. Lucknow

    Explanation: The Red Fort is in Delhi.

  70. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    70. Who founded the Gupta Empire?

    • A. Chandragupta I (Correct)
    • B. Samudragupta
    • C. Harsha
    • D. Ashoka

    Explanation: Chandragupta I is regarded as the founder of the Gupta Empire.

  71. Session II — General Awareness and English — Culture

    71. Garba is mainly associated with:

    • A. Punjab
    • B. Gujarat (Correct)
    • C. Odisha
    • D. Bihar

    Explanation: Garba is the famous folk dance of Gujarat.

  72. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    72. The Quit India Movement was launched in:

    • A. 1940
    • B. 1942 (Correct)
    • C. 1945
    • D. 1947

    Explanation: It was launched in August 1942.

  73. Session II — General Awareness and English — Books

    73. 'Geetanjali' is written by:

    • A. Tagore (Correct)
    • B. Premchand
    • C. Nehru
    • D. Bharati

    Explanation: Rabindranath Tagore wrote Gitanjali.

  74. Session II — General Awareness and English — Monuments

    74. The Taj Mahal is situated in:

    • A. Jaipur
    • B. Agra (Correct)
    • C. Delhi
    • D. Hyderabad

    Explanation: The Taj Mahal is in Agra.

  75. Session II — General Awareness and English — History

    75. The Civil Disobedience Movement began with the:

    • A. Dandi March (Correct)
    • B. Non-Cooperation Movement
    • C. Khilafat Movement
    • D. Bardoli Satyagraha

    Explanation: The movement began with Gandhi's Dandi March.

  76. Session II — General Awareness and English — Polity

    76. Article 32 is related to:

    • A. Right to Equality
    • B. Right to Constitutional Remedies (Correct)
    • C. Right to Freedom of Religion
    • D. Directive Principles

    Explanation: Article 32 gives the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of rights.

  77. Session II — General Awareness and English — Economy

    77. RBI stands for:

    • A. Reserve Bank of India (Correct)
    • B. Revenue Bank of India
    • C. Rural Bank of India
    • D. Registered Bank of India

    Explanation: RBI is India's central bank.

  78. Session II — General Awareness and English — Economy

    78. GST stands for:

    • A. General Sales Tax
    • B. Goods and Services Tax (Correct)
    • C. Gross State Tax
    • D. Government Service Tariff

    Explanation: GST is the Goods and Services Tax system in India.

  79. Session II — General Awareness and English — Polity

    79. The Governor is the constitutional head of a:

    • A. district
    • B. state (Correct)
    • C. municipality
    • D. union territory always

    Explanation: A Governor is the constitutional head of a state.

  80. Session II — General Awareness and English — Economy

    80. NITI Aayog replaced the:

    • A. Finance Commission
    • B. Planning Commission (Correct)
    • C. Election Commission
    • D. UPSC

    Explanation: NITI Aayog replaced the Planning Commission.

  81. Session II — General Awareness and English — Polity

    81. The tenure of Lok Sabha is normally:

    • A. 4 years
    • B. 5 years (Correct)
    • C. 6 years
    • D. 7 years

    Explanation: The normal tenure of Lok Sabha is five years.

  82. Session II — General Awareness and English — Economy

    82. Inflation refers to a sustained rise in the:

    • A. general price level (Correct)
    • B. tax rate only
    • C. exports only
    • D. population level

    Explanation: Inflation is a sustained increase in the general price level.

  83. Session II — General Awareness and English — Polity

    83. The Right to Equality is contained in Articles:

    • A. 12 to 35
    • B. 14 to 18 (Correct)
    • C. 19 to 22
    • D. 23 to 24

    Explanation: Articles 14 to 18 cover the Right to Equality.

  84. Session II — General Awareness and English — Economy

    84. Which institution issues currency notes in India except one-rupee note?

    • A. Finance Ministry
    • B. RBI (Correct)
    • C. SEBI
    • D. NABARD

    Explanation: RBI issues currency notes except the one-rupee note.

  85. Session II — General Awareness and English — Polity

    85. The constitutional amendment related to Panchayati Raj is:

    • A. 42nd
    • B. 44th
    • C. 73rd (Correct)
    • D. 74th

    Explanation: The 73rd Amendment constitutionalised Panchayati Raj institutions.

  86. Session II — General Awareness and English — Economy

    86. The basic unit of Indian currency is:

    • A. rupee (Correct)
    • B. paisa
    • C. anna
    • D. token

    Explanation: The rupee is the basic currency unit.

  87. Session II — General Awareness and English — Economy

    87. A budget deficit means:

    • A. income exceeds expenditure
    • B. expenditure exceeds income (Correct)
    • C. taxes vanish
    • D. all prices fall

    Explanation: A deficit arises when spending is greater than receipts.

  88. Session II — General Awareness and English — Polity

    88. The upper house of Parliament is called:

    • A. Lok Sabha
    • B. Rajya Sabha (Correct)
    • C. Vidhan Sabha
    • D. Gram Sabha

    Explanation: Rajya Sabha is the upper house of Parliament.

  89. Session II — General Awareness and English — Polity

    89. Untouchability is abolished under Article:

    • A. 14
    • B. 17 (Correct)
    • C. 19
    • D. 21

    Explanation: Article 17 abolishes untouchability.

  90. Session II — General Awareness and English — Economy

    90. The full form of GDP is:

    • A. Gross Domestic Product (Correct)
    • B. General Development Plan
    • C. Gross Demand Product
    • D. Government Debt Plan

    Explanation: GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product.