King's propertyMediumQuestion 340005
Question
∫₀^(π/2) sin x/(sin x + cos x) dx equals:
- Aπ/4Correct
- Bπ/2
- C1
- D0
Correct answer
π/4
Explanation
Using King's property: I = ∫₀^(π/2) cos x/(cos x + sin x) dx. Adding: 2I = ∫₀^(π/2) 1 dx = π/2. So I = π/4.